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As Christians how do people feel about David Quinn's response to yes vote?

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Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,938 ✭✭✭galljga1


    You do discriminate your attitude narrow and your point of view very blinkered.
    I already asked this question but you did not answer.

    What study have you done on the origins and authenticity of the Gospels?
    Who wrote them? When where they written?

    I have met a lot of people like you, the Church is infallible and the bible to be taken literally.

    You say you have zero interest in other peoples interpretation but take on board an interpretation given by the Church which when you looks at it is just another group of men with funny hat's!

    People like you scare me a little you seem to have an inability to think for yourself but feel the need to champion views on society dream-pt up literally thousands of years ago.

    I seem you jumped from "You would not be adhering to that law" to "advocating" you then go on and say things like "enaging in sexual acts, they're both committing mortal sin"

    A mortal sin was something that Catholic church made up, it literally made it up and decided here is a list of things that god will not forgive and you will go to hell among them are divorce, contraception, masturbation, suicide etc etc...

    This has nothing to do with the teachings of Jesus.
    Have you ever actually looked at the history of the Catholic Church?

    People with moderate intelligence eventually started to question this, as most of it simply did not add up.

    People with mental health issues who are not accountable for their actions that commit suicide how does that work?

    A woman who suffers physical and mental abuse at the hands of her husband.. No divorce?

    Aids stricken countries, no condoms?

    You want to buy into absolute nonsense that is fine but most sensible people I think would consider you a fool with very foolish views..

    I know you think your right and in the end you when in heaven you will be vindicated by pointing the finger or whatever it is you are trying to do on this thread.

    Let me ask another question, what if you are wrong? And I know this might be challenging for you but perhaps just ponder that for a while.

    There really is no point in an exchange with this narrow minded bigot. His mind is closed.


  • Moderators Posts: 52,024 ✭✭✭✭Delirium


    galljga1 wrote: »
    There really is no point in an exchange with this narrow minded bigot. His mind is closed.

    MOD NOTE

    Carded for personal abuse.

    Please avoid such posts in the future.

    Thanks for attention.

    If you can read this, you're too close!



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    There are contemporary writimgs which speak of Jesus so his existence is factual.
    There was a contemporary historian called Josephus who mentions Him

    No, there are no contempraneous accounts of Jesus. Josephus was not a contemporary of Jesus having only been born 4 years after Jesus was already dead. Besides the only authentic reference to Jesus in Jospehus writings comes from Book 20,9,1 which states:

    "and brought before them the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ, whose name was James"

    Hardly a detailed biography that.

    The existence of Jesus is probable not factual. The claim that a man named Jesus existed in Palestine 2000 years ago is a very ordinary claim and thus only requires a very ordinary level of evidence to substantitate. What we have on Jesus is vague and circumstantial but it is sufficient to say that it's likely he existed. However, to say that Jesus' existence is factual and by factual in the strict defintion:

    "confirmed to such a degree that it would be perverse to withhold provisional consent"

    is misleading.

    hinault wrote: »
    There is no allegedly about it. Jesus teaching about marriage in the Bible is clear and unequivocal.

    If Jesus Christ countenanced other forms of marriage it is reasonable to assume that (i) Jesus would have stated so, and (ii) that the gospels would have recorded Jesus saying so.
    Therefore Jesus did not countenance other forms of marriage because the gospel tells us what Jesus did countenance in terms of marriage.

    It's interesting how atheists try to use what isn't in the Bible to make their spurious claims.

    Says the poster attempting to make an argument from silence.

    You're doing exactly the same thing that you're accusing atheists of doing, trying to draw positive conclusions from negative evidence.

    To say that Jesus teaches that man-woman marriage is the ONLY valid form of marriage on the basis that he doesn't mention any other forms of marriage or relationship is highly disingenuous.

    You've made the case for man-woman marriage on the basis of Mark 10 and Matthew 19. This is problematic for several reasons.

    Firstly, you claim above that if Jesus had mentioned such a thing that it would be recorded in the gospels. However, it is clear that this is not the case. The gospels were written over a period of approximately 40 years beginning 40 years after Jesus death. They contain many factual inaccuracies and contradict each other in many places. The idea that they are a faithful and more importantly trustworthy account of what Jesus said and did is weak at best.

    Secondly, let's talk about the specific claims made in Mark 10 and Matthew 19. Mark, Matthew and Luke are referred to as the synoptics since they share the same basic narrative. This is because Matthew and to a lesser extent Luke both copy heavily from Mark's gospel. So it is unsurprising when we see a story pop up again in Matthew or Luke's gospel. So the reference in Matthew 19 is just a result of Matthew copying over 90% of his gospel from Mark. However, when Luke deletes the reference to Genesis in Luke 16:18, we get a different story which doesn't fit with the thrust of the argument made by Mark 10.
    What is also interesting is that while there is only 12% of the content shared between the synoptics and the gospel of John there are 11 events which are retold in all four gospels. Now while some of these bear the hallmarks of copying too, the fact that the teaching about marriage isn't one of them is quite telling.

    You really need to read the bible if your going to refer to it.
    Paul speaks clearly about homosexuality in romans 1.

    We've been through this before in the gay megathread and katydid has also refuted this in post 105 above. There are other things which Paul speaks about which the vast majority of Christians do not agree with. What makes Paul right about homosexuality?


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 6,351 ✭✭✭katydid


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    The existence of Jesus is probable not factual. The claim that a man named Jesus existed in Palestine 2000 years ago is a very ordinary claim and thus only requires a very ordinary level of evidence to substantitate. What we have on Jesus is vague and circumstantial but it is sufficient to say that it's likely he existed.

    Good point there. The mistake, however, a lot of sceptics make is to assume that because there is no factual, biographical information, that is proof Jesus did NOT exist. When in fact it proves neither one thing nor the other.

    The reality is that unless you were a rich or important person at that time, your existence was rarely documented as an individual. A son of a carpenter and a wandering preacher would not have come into the official radar in any documentary sense.

    However, we must realise that history, bibliography and the like had a whole different meaning at that time. You only have to look at "historians" like Heroditus to see that fact and fiction, truth and myth are almost interchangeable. The basic idea was almost always embroidered on to suit the agenda of the writer. In that context, I think we can assume that there was a person on whom the oral and written accounts are based.

    Of course the fact that the gospels are very much copied from each other does make one suspicious, but we need to remember that they also drew on another source, named "Q", which itself originated from somewhere. I think it's highly unlikely that these accounts sprang out of nowhere and had no basis. The discrepancies and the omissions are simply the result of second hand and third hand reporting - but it would be extremely unlikely that they were all based on a non-existent person.

    As a Christian, I am happy to accept that what Jesus is reported as saying and doing in the Gospels have to be taken on board with reservations, given the nature of how and when the Gospels were written. But, having said that, that doesn't take away from the essence of what Jesus said in the slightest. Ask ten people who have just listened to a sermon or a political speech what has just been said, and you will get ten different accounts. But, hopefully, the listeners will all have grasped the general gist of what was said.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 3,292 ✭✭✭RecordStraight


    hinault wrote: »
    Clearly it is of interest to you!
    Only is so far as you choose an uncharitable and mean-spirited interpretation of something in a religion that is supposed to be founded on charity and generosity of spirit.

    I find it interesting how people spin Christianity to fit their own personality and prejudices.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 122 ✭✭barretsimpson


    Only is so far as you choose an uncharitable and mean-spirited interpretation of something in a religion that is supposed to be founded on charity and generosity of spirit.

    I find it interesting how people spin Christianity to fit their own personality and prejudices.

    Now aint that the truth, both "Christians" and non Christians alike


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    katydid wrote: »
    Good point there. The mistake, however, a lot of sceptics make is to assume that because there is no factual, biographical information, that is proof Jesus did NOT exist. When in fact it proves neither one thing nor the other.

    Agreed. Jesus mythicists irritate me no end.

    katydid wrote: »
    The reality is that unless you were a rich or important person at that time, your existence was rarely documented as an individual. A son of a carpenter and a wandering preacher would not have come into the official radar in any documentary sense.

    Well, here's the thing.
    Firstly, a lot of people seem to that Jesus being the son of a carpenter meant that somehow he was working class or dirt poor. It is likely that Jesus was incredibly wealthy in the context of his society. Being a carpenter in a society where everything was made of wood would have been a lucrative occupation. Moreover, being a carpenter so close to the Sea of Galilee with lots of local fisherman, its probable that Joseph had his hand in shipbuilding and repair too. This means that Jesus was more likely to be akin to the cast of Made in Chelsea than Frank McCourt. He was literate and well-schooled in rabbinical teaching, something unusual within the wider society.
    Secondly, despite the claims of the gospels that Jesus' fame spread far and wide this doesn't seem to be the case. Although we do have writings from his followers down the line, we don't have that much from people outside of that sphere and certainly nothing contempraneous. So Jesus didn't come up on the radar. The only authentic references to Jesus from non-biblical sources are sideline mentions like Josephus above.

    katydid wrote: »
    However, we must realise that history, bibliography and the like had a whole different meaning at that time. You only have to look at "historians" like Heroditus to see that fact and fiction, truth and myth are almost interchangeable. The basic idea was almost always embroidered on to suit the agenda of the writer. In that context, I think we can assume that there was a person on whom the oral and written accounts are based.

    In general I agree, however, while it's true that history and biography of the time were different to how they are now, it's also true that none of the gospels are written like historical or biographical accounts. There are several reasons for this.

    1. The gospels make little or no attempt to identify the sources they draw upon in writing their stories. (e.g. Luke mentions that he draws on sources but does not name them)
    2. The later gospel authors make no attempt to resolve contradictions with earlier works (e.g. Luke makes no attempt to reconcile his nativity narrative with Matthew's)
    3. The author does not place himself in the story.
    4. The gospels are written for the common man rather than the social and literary elite audience of Greek and Roman histories/biographies.
    5. The gospels contain far too many hagiographical elements to be historically reliable.
    6. There is no attempt to warn the reader that certain events or words may not be recorded clearly. None of the gospel authors make any attempt to identify where they speculate on content.
    7. The interdependence of the gospels makes them unlike the historical writings of the time.
    8. Unusual events disappear from the wider narrative. The aftermath of the graves opening in Matthew is not discussed in any other text.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,932 ✭✭✭hinault


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    To say that Jesus teaches that man-woman marriage is the ONLY valid form of marriage on the basis that he doesn't mention any other forms of marriage or relationship is highly disingenuous.

    How is it disingenuous? Explain how it is disingenuous?

    The teaching of Jesus Christ is clear that marriage applies only to unions between men and woman.

    Jesus never countenanced any other relationship. If Jesus did please quote chapter and verse.



    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    You've made the case for man-woman marriage on the basis of Mark 10 and Matthew 19. This is problematic for several reasons.

    Firstly, you claim above that if Jesus had mentioned such a thing that it would be recorded in the gospels. However, it is clear that this is not the case. The gospels were written over a period of approximately 40 years beginning 40 years after Jesus death. They contain many factual inaccuracies and contradict each other in many places. The idea that they are a faithful and more importantly trustworthy account of what Jesus said and did is weak at best.

    We possess over 5,000 copies of gospels dating from the 1st century.
    Each of these copies were hand written.
    99% of each of these copies are exact replicas of the other 4,999 copies.
    The miracle is that these 5,000 copies were found throughout locations in the Near East, Greece, Italy.
    The copy of the gospel by Luke located in Asia Minor is exactly the same gospel of Luke located Rome.

    Your claim that the gospels contradict each other is baloney. The gospels don't contradict each other. Some gospels are more detailed about certain events than other gospels, agreed. Some gospels refer to events which other gospels give no account of, agreed. But this doesn't amount to contradiction.

    If I say that I was born on the 1st December, but my brother says I was born at 12.35hrs on the 1st December, is that a contradiction? Of course it's not.




    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Secondly, let's talk about the specific claims made in Mark 10 and Matthew 19. Mark, Matthew and Luke are referred to as the synoptics since they share the same basic narrative. This is because Matthew and to a lesser extent Luke both copy heavily from Mark's gospel. So it is unsurprising when we see a story pop up again in Matthew or Luke's gospel. So the reference in Matthew 19 is just a result of Matthew copying over 90% of his gospel from Mark. However, when Luke deletes the reference to Genesis in Luke 16:18, we get a different story which doesn't fit with the thrust of the argument made by Mark 10.
    What is also interesting is that while there is only 12% of the content shared between the synoptics and the gospel of John there are 11 events which are retold in all four gospels. Now while some of these bear the hallmarks of copying too, the fact that the teaching about marriage isn't one of them is quite telling.

    Or Jesus said what he said and Mark and Matthew separately wrote what Jesus said about marriage.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    hinault wrote: »
    How is it disingenuous? Explain how it is disingenuous?

    The teaching of Jesus Christ is clear that marriage applies only to unions between men and woman.

    Jesus never countenanced any other relationship. If Jesus did please quote chapter and verse.


    It is disingenuous because you are drawing a positive conclusion from negative evidence. Let me explain with an example. Let's say that I make a statement like this:

    "Apples are great. Everyone should eat apples because God gave them to us as a gift."

    Does this mean that apples are great? Certainly.

    Does this mean that oranges should never be eaten or don't come from God. No. Not at all.

    The fact that Jesus doesn't mention something only means that it wasn't recorded. It doesn't mean he condemened it. It means the gospel authors didn't make any mention of it.

    hinault wrote: »
    We possess over 5,000 copies of gospels dating from the 1st century.
    Each of these copies were hand written.
    99% of each of these copies are exact replicas of the other 4,999 copies.
    The miracle is that these 5,000 copies were found throughout locations in the Near East, Greece, Italy.
    The copy of the gospel by Luke located in Asia Minor is exactly the same gospel of Luke located Rome.

    OK, let's get this out of the way first. The fact that the copies we have agree to each other does not mean that the texts themselves agree to the facts. Even if the gospel of Mark had been faithfully copied from the original every time (which of course it hasn't, i.e. 16:9-20) there is still a forty year gap between the composition of the gospel and the events it describes. So it doesn't matter how many copies there are of Mark now, it doesn't bridge the original gap between the events and the writing of the gospel.

    hinault wrote: »
    Your claim that the gospels contradict each other is baloney. The gospels don't contradict each other. Some gospels are more detailed about certain events than other gospels, agreed. Some gospels refer to events which other gospels give no account of, agreed. But this doesn't amount to contradiction.

    [hysterical laughter] Ahahahahahaha [/hysterical laughter]

    Of course they contradict each other. It has nothing to do with detail, it has to do with specific claims made by certain gospel authors which are contradicted by other gospel authors regarding events which are depicted by both of them. We'll be here all day if we have to go through all of them but let's look at a few.

    "After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod, Magi from the east came to Jerusalem
    and asked, “Where is the one who has been born king of the Jews? We saw his star when it rose and have come to worship him.”
    Matthew 2:1-2

    "In those days Caesar Augustus issued a decree that a census should be taken of the entire Roman world. (This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria.) And everyone went to their own town to register."
    Luke 2:1-3

    In Matthew's gospel Jesus' birth is depicted as occurring during the reign of King Herod who died in 4BCE. However, Luke's gospel has Jesus' birth occur after a census ordered while Quirinius was governor of Syria. Quirinius was not appointed governor of Syria until 6CE. So both stories cannot be true. This is not a difference in detail. This is a direct contradiction.

    And here's another one.

    "On the first day of the Festival of Unleavened Bread, when it was customary to sacrifice the Passover lamb, Jesus’ disciples asked him, “Where do you want us to go and make preparations for you to eat the Passover?”
    Mark 14:12

    "When Pilate heard this, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judge’s seat at a place known as the Stone Pavement (which in Aramaic is Gabbatha). It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon."

    John 19:13-14

    In Mark's gospel Jesus and his disciples celebrate the Last Supper which is the passover sedr, the feast eaten on passover eve. He is then arrested, taken away, tried and executed the next day on Passover (something btw the Jews would never have done). However, John's gospel places the last supper on the day before and the execution on Passover eve. This is a direct contraditiction. It's not a disagreement over detail.

    Or another one:

    And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ. Matthew 1:16


    And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli.
    Luke 3:23

    Even in small things there are contradictions.

    Like I said, I'm not talking about the difference between Genesis 1 and 2 here. I'm talking about specific direct contradictions in the bible (both OT and NT) of which there are many. And these are just contradictions about basic facts which the authors should have been able to get right. This doesn't even begin to talk about the philosophical rifts between the authors, like this one:

    "“Are you so dull?” he asked. “Don’t you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can defile them? For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)"
    Mark 7:18-19

    "Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
    Matthew 5:19

    There is a contradiction here between the author of Mark's gospel who follows Pauline writings advocating abandonment of Jewish laws and practices whereas the author of Matthew's gospel follows James' approach of being obedient to the mitzvot.

    hinault wrote: »
    Or Jesus said what he said and Mark and Matthew separately wrote what Jesus said about marriage.

    Except that they didn't write separately. Over 90% of the text in Matthew's gospel is copied verbatim from Mark. Where there are differences it is either to a) incorporate other sayings such as those from Q b) correct a mistake Mark has made such as his error in geography in Chapter 5 or c) make a theological change such as the one detailed above. Neither Matthew or Mark are directly reporting what Jesus said because neither of them were contemporaries or eyewitnesses.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 122 ✭✭barretsimpson


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    The fact that Jesus doesn't mention something only means that it wasn't recorded. It doesn't mean he condemened it. It means the gospel authors didn't make any mention of it.

    Haha ya got them . . .
    Exactly, no mention of drugs, porn etc. all those good things. Yeah baby.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 122 ✭✭barretsimpson


    oldrnwisr wrote: »

    [hysterical laughter] Ahahahahahaha [/hysterical laughter]

    MANIC YEAAAAAH !


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    Haha ya got them . . .
    Exactly, no mention of drugs, porn etc. all those good things. Yeah baby.

    Catholic Church deem masturbation as a mortal sin so be careful with the porn!


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 17,495 ✭✭✭✭eviltwin


    Catholic Church deem masturbation as a mortal sin so be careful with the porn!

    Do they? :eek: Why :confused:


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 122 ✭✭barretsimpson


    Catholic Church deem masturbation as a mortal sin so be careful with the porn!

    you'd be better to lay off that, you'll go blind


  • Moderators Posts: 52,024 ✭✭✭✭Delirium


    you'd be better to lay off that, you'll go blind

    MOD NOTE

    Lets try keep to the topic please.

    Thanks for your attention.

    If you can read this, you're too close!



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    you'd be better to lay off that, you'll go blind

    Another myth and you changed your original post awfully fast!


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 122 ✭✭barretsimpson


    Another myth and you changed your original post awfully fast!

    now now, telling porkie pies is also a sin for you bad boy, you'll need more tissues


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,137 ✭✭✭horseburger


    JohnBee wrote: »
    Not sure if people have heard David Quinn comment on the yes vote but just wondering how Christians feel?

    Basically his attitude was that they had an uphill battle, that their tactics failed and that they started their campaign too late.

    I found this very patronizing. It almost suggests that the outcome of the referendum, in his view, is that it represents the outcome of the best campaign. To me this is quite small minded of him. Why can he (and Iona) not just accept that this is a sign of the will of the people and that his views (and that of the mothers and fathers group) are minority views that are out of place in 2015?


    I thought the response by David Quinn to the comments made by the Referendum Commission Chairman Justice Kevin Cross in the in the second of the live RTE One results programmes on Saturday was interesting.

    Niall Collins TD Fianna Fail had just commended Justice Kevin Cross and Geoffrey Shannon, Special Rapporteur on Child Protection, for bringing clarity in describing what would follow on, in terms of family law, in the event of a Yes or No vote.

    David Quinn responded by opining that Justice Kevin Cross had said things that would favour both the arguments made by the Yes campaigners and also the No campaigners.

    David Quinn, at the 44 minute mark said that if there was a yes vote that it would mean that it would not be possible to give preference to motherhood and fatherhood in areas of family law in relation to issues like adoption and surrogacy.

    http://www.rte.ie/player/ie/show/10422876/

    He said in relation to wanting a preference for motherhood and fatherhood that “my concerns are that our laws can’t reflect that anymore”.

    He said “the referendum commission gave advice that, I would say was helpful to the Yes side and also some advice that was helpful to the No side. For example, he confirmed our point of view that if the referendum goes through, which it has, it would be very difficult for any future government to pass a law around things like adoption and surrogacy and AHR to try to give a preference to motherhood and fatherhood in our laws. He basically confirmed that fact and that’s something we were advancing through the campaign".

    Niall Collins later emphasised that regardless of how surrogacy is legislated in Ireland, Irish citizens could still avail of surrogacy procedures abroad.

    It was emphasised in the pre-legislative discussion on the Children and Family Relationship Bill on 9th April 2014 that gay and lesbian couples can already raise children and avail of surrogacy and sperm and egg donation, regardless of the Children and Family Relationship Bill.

    http://media.heanet.ie/oireachtas/as...n=07:00:51.000

    http://www.oireachtas.ie/viewdoc.asp...7&StartDate=01


    Neither the result of the Referendum or the detail in the Children and Family Relationships Bill questioned whether or not gay and lesbian couples could raise children, yet this issue, is highlighted regularly by No campaign groups like Mothers and Fathers Matter and Iona Institute, questioning the ability of those couples to raise children, in comparison to heterosexual couples.

    Why does David Quinn want to implement preferences of family types for issues like adoption?

    What evidence does he have to suggest that a child raised by a heterosexual couple would be brought up in a safer, stable home than that of a gay or lesbian couple?

    What evidence does he have to suggest that children brought up by heterosexual parents fare better than that of gay or lesbian couples?

    He didn't make reference to any study suggesting that, on the RTE results show on Saturday, so is it just on his opinion, that he is basing his call for a preference of a particular family type, in terms of adoption and surrogacy?

    As I understand it, there is no definite study to suggest that there should be a generalisation to prefer one type of family over another, that there is no definite study to justify giving an automatic preference, in the case of adoption or surrogacy, to heterosexual couples. As I understand it, these things are decided on a case by case basis.

    here is an article that highlights inaccurate statements by Mothers and Fathers Matter, on this topic:

    http://keithjy.wix.com/mots#!Mothers-and-Fathers-Matter-The-Truth-Doesnt/c218b/5538ff430cf23d01644653ec

    I find his call for a conscience clause to be quite bizarre. I can’t understand why he is calling for a conscience clause to enable businesses refuse a service to people, for example for a business transaction relating to civil partnerships or civil marriages for gay and lesbian couples.


    He has spoken about wanting to implement a conscience clause on numerous occasions in media interviews and debates during the referendum campaign.

    http://www.ionainstitute.ie/index.php?id=3896

    http://www.newstalk.com/listen_back/8/17333/23rd_March_2015_-_Moncrieff_Part_1/

    https://www.newstalk.ie/reader/47.301/43901/0/

    It seems to me that he wants companies to be able to refuse services, based on the owners religious beliefs, relating to things that are entirely legal in Ireland, even though, in the case of civil partnerships and civil marriage, religious churches or church representatives are not being forced to officiate at those ceremonies.

    Why does he want the government to implement a law enabling a business to refuse to provide a service to a customer, for example for something relating to a civil partnership or civil marriage for gay and lesbian couples?

    For example, in the case of Beulah Print in Drogheda, the printer was asked by a salon owner, Jonathon Brennan, - who had been dealing with Beulah Print for four years, getting his business stationery, for his hairdressing business, printed by them – to print out his civil partnership invites.

    The printer owners refused to print them out, based on their religious beliefs, saying they were against same sex marriage.

    (Jonathon Brennan spoke about the issue on LMFM's Michael Reade Show on Thursday 5th March.)

    http://www.lmfm.ie/Local-News-Info/Article/?ItemID=3666

    http://www.lmfm.ie/Podcasts/Podcasts/Show.aspx?showalias=The-Michael-Reade-Show-1#6654

    http://utv.vo.llnwd.net/o16/LMFM/2015/03/04/Loosetalk040315.mp3

    But in asking the print company to print the invites, Jonathon Brennan wasn’t insulting or disrespecting the religious beliefs of the owners. He wasn’t asking the printer to print out a slogan insulting their religion, nor was he asking the business to print a slogan for the campaign for a Yes vote in the referendum.

    I think it could be argued also, that in the case of Asher’s Bakery, that even if the customer - who asked the baking company to include, on the cake, a slogan endorsing gay marriage – knew about the owners religious beliefs, that they weren’t trying to insult the owners religious beliefs, in that they weren’t asking the owners to change their religious beliefs.

    If, for example, either Beulah Print or Asher's Bakery had been asked to print out a slogan insulting any religious belief or religious organisation or Church, it would be understandable if either business refused to print it.

    For example, when the band Cradle of Filth had t shirts out around 16 or 17 years ago with “Jesus is a ****” printed on the back, it would be understandable why a printing business with a religious ethos, would refuse to print them.

    http://www.blabbermouth.net/news/offensive-cradle-of-filth-t-shirt-in-new-zealand-museum-exhibition/

    http://metalhammer.teamrock.com/news/2015-02-13/offensive-cradle-of-filth-t-shirt-goes-on-display

    But in the two recent cases of Asher’s Bakery and Beulah Print, it could be argued, I think, that neither of the company owners were being insulted because of their religious beliefs.

    I think the fact that Beulah Print refused to print out the civil partnership invites, shows an intolerance of a union that has been legal in Ireland since 2010, and it also highlights a contradiction in the No campaign, in that, campaigners like David Quinn, who argued against the introduction of civil partnerships five years ago, were saying throughout the referendum campaign, to retain civil partnerships, even though he endorses the idea of introducing a conscience clause that would, for example, permit a business like Beulah Print, to refuse to print out civil partnership invitations.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,932 ✭✭✭hinault


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    It is disingenuous because you are drawing a positive conclusion from negative evidence. Let me explain with an example. Let's say that I make a statement like this:

    "Apples are great. Everyone should eat apples because God gave them to us as a gift."

    Does this mean that apples are great? Certainly.

    Does this mean that oranges should never be eaten or don't come from God. No. Not at all.

    The fact that Jesus doesn't mention something only means that it wasn't recorded. It doesn't mean he condemened it. It means the gospel authors didn't make any mention of it.

    Eh, I'm not drawing a conclusion from anything other than the complete absence of any reference to Jesus countenancing a relationship other than one between a man and a woman.

    If one accepts that the gospel is the inerrant word of God, it is reasonable to assume that a directive about marriage would explicitly state that unions other than one man and one woman would be countenanced.
    There isn't, because no such relationship was countenanced.

    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    OK, let's get this out of the way first. The fact that the copies we have agree to each other does not mean that the texts themselves agree to the facts. Even if the gospel of Mark had been faithfully copied from the original every time (which of course it hasn't, i.e. 16:9-20) there is still a forty year gap between the composition of the gospel and the events it describes. So it doesn't matter how many copies there are of Mark now, it doesn't bridge the original gap between the events and the writing of the gospel.

    Hold on there.

    We possess over 5,000 copies of the gospels dating from the 1st centures, found throughout disparate locations all hand written, which agree with each other in 99% throughout.
    In other words the copy of Mark found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Mark found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    And this applies with each of the other copies of the 1st century gospels.
    Matthew, John, Luke, each of the copies of the 5,000+ first century versions replicate each other in 99%.

    In other words the copy of John found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of John found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Luke found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Luke found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    I'm going to deal separately with the spurious points that you raise about gospel contradiction separately.


  • Moderators Posts: 52,024 ✭✭✭✭Delirium


    hinault wrote: »
    Eh, I'm not drawing a conclusion from anything other than the complete absence of any reference to Jesus countenancing a relationship other than one between a man and a woman.

    If one accepts that the gospel is the inerrant word of God, it is reasonable to assume that a directive about marriage would explicitly state that unions other than one man and one woman would be countenanced.
    There isn't, because no such relationship was countenanced.
    That's exactly the point oldrnwisr was making.

    To give another example.

    A person tells people a story in which their dad drove them to the cinema to meet some friends.

    What you are doing essentially, is claiming that based on the story they tell, that they are opposed to women drivers.

    If you can read this, you're too close!



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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    hinault wrote: »
    Eh, I'm not drawing a conclusion from anything other than the complete absence of any reference to Jesus countenancing a relationship other than one between a man and a woman.

    If one accepts that the gospel is the inerrant word of God, it is reasonable to assume that a directive about marriage would explicitly state that unions other than one man and one woman would be countenanced.
    There isn't, because no such relationship was countenanced.


    Well I don't accept it's inerrant for a start, so let's get that out of the way. As I've said previously if the gospels were inerrant then they wouldn't contain the mistakes that they do or they wouldn't disagree with each other to the extent that they do.

    Anyway, getting back to the point, the fact that Jesus doesn't mention any other type of relationship means just that he doesn't mention it. We can't say whether Jesus would or would not have condoned a gay marriage. The reason for this is the disagreement between Mark and Matthew over the necessity of the law in salvation. On the one hand you've got passages such as those in Mark where Jesus advocates abandonment of certain Jewish laws like those regarding food and passages such as John 13:34-35 which advocate a more liberal attitude towards your fellow man. On the other hand you've got the Matthew and James approach that faith in Jesus without the deeds of the law is useless, which is best expemplified in Matthew 5:19. So it's hard to know what Jesus would have actually said about the strictures against homosexuality in the bible. After all, being a Jew well schooled in Rabbinical teaching, Jesus is not likely to have made the mistake that Paul does in assuming that the destruction of Sodom is due to sexual immorality but instead would have known that it was due to inhospitality.

    hinault wrote: »
    Hold on there.

    We possess over 5,000 copies of the gospels dating from the 1st centures, found throughout disparate locations all hand written, which agree with each other in 99% throughout.
    In other words the copy of Mark found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Mark found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    And this applies with each of the other copies of the 1st century gospels.
    Matthew, John, Luke, each of the copies of the 5,000+ first century versions replicate each other in 99%.

    In other words the copy of John found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of John found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Luke found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Luke found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    I'm going to deal separately with the spurious points that you raise about gospel contradiction separately.

    OK, there are a couple of mistakes with your argument here.

    Firstly, none of the early NT manuscripts that have been discovered date to the 1st century. The earliest manuscript which has been found to date is the Rylands Papyrus P52 which contains a fragment of John (18:31-33; 18:37-38) and is dated to 125CE. Of the early manuscripts only 5 date to the 2nd century, all of the rest are much older.

    Secondly, there are approximately 5500 NT manuscripts in total. There are not 5000 copies of each gospel. There are not 5000 copies of whole documents. Most of them like P52 above are fragments containing a few verses or a whole chapter. The earliest complete copies of any gospel date to the 4th century. What you have for the most part is fragmentary pieces matching the complete text in the 4th century, not complete copies matching each other.

    All of the gospels contain later interpolations to some extent. Among the most significant interpolations are Mark 16:9-20, John 7:53-8:11, Luke 22:43-44, Luke 23:34 and Matthew 16:2-3 (Other NT works also contain later interpolations but we're focusing on the gospels for now). Then there are the differences between the early manuscripts and the bibles that are printed today such as Matthew 27:35, Mark 15:28 and Acts 8:37 where items are ommitted in the NIV and other modern translations which are included in some early manuscripts. Then there are the alterations to the text such as Matthew 28:19 which mentions the trinity despite the fact that it didn't become church doctrine until the 3rd century and is not quoted in that way by either other NT texts such as Acts or early church fathers such as Eusebius.

    Anyway, there are two points here. The copies of the gospels do not exactly agree in all places but agree to a large extent. Therefore, we can be reasonably confident that the text that we have of each gospel is a reasonably faithful reproduction of the original (with caveats surrounding the interpolations above). However, since none of the gospels were written before 70CE and none of them by eyewitnesses, we cannot have much confidence that the events they describe are recorded accurately. The early church fathers and even the evangelists themselves realised that the gospels are not historical accounts, they are theological accounts, stories intended to stoke the fire of faith in existing Christians and converts alike.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    hinault wrote: »
    Hold on there.

    We possess over 5,000 copies of the gospels dating from the 1st centures, found throughout disparate locations all hand written, which agree with each other in 99% throughout.
    In other words the copy of Mark found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Mark found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    And this applies with each of the other copies of the 1st century gospels.
    Matthew, John, Luke, each of the copies of the 5,000+ first century versions replicate each other in 99%.

    In other words the copy of John found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of John found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Matthew found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?


    In other words the copy of Luke found in 1st century Rome, is exactly the same as the copy of Luke found in 1st century Syria, is exactly the same as the one found in 1st century Israel, among those 5,000 copies. OK?

    I'm going to deal separately with the spurious points that you raise about gospel contradiction separately.

    You really need to read this a little more carefully as this is really going over your head.

    Have you ever studied history? I mean even at school?

    The Gospels act as eye witness account of the life of Jesus, however the existence of the books did not even come into play until 40 - 50 years after Jesus died. So the first book by Matthew, Mark, Luke and John where put into writing as we know them now long after Jesus was gone and probably long after Matthew, Mark, Luke and John where gone.

    Who put these books into their current form? There are a number of theories around this and a number of theories to who the scholars where that drafted what we now call the Gospels.

    Things we do not know, the authors Matthew, Mark, Luke and John where attributed after they where written so it could of been James, Peter, Simon and Joe for all we know.

    Also we do not know how these scholars came about this evidence, did each of the four individuals keep a diary or was it something they put together much later in life? Did they even write anything down or did these scholars perhaps talk to each of the four and take notes for themselves?

    Your rant about about the copies as they migrated from province to province makes absolutely no argument it is a non sequitur.

    Bit like me saying my copy of Shakespear I got in Argentina is exactly the same as the original copy of Shakespear held at the British Library....


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    until 40 - 50

    oldrnwisr has the date of 125AD with the idea that it was probably written perhaps 60 -70 years after Christ so I was probably being kind by suggesting 40 - 50 years after.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,932 ✭✭✭hinault


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    [hysterical laughter] Ahahahahahaha [/hysterical laughter]

    Of course they contradict each other. It has nothing to do with detail, it has to do with specific claims made by certain gospel authors which are contradicted by other gospel authors regarding events which are depicted by both of them. We'll be here all day if we have to go through all of them but let's look at a few.

    In Matthew's gospel Jesus' birth is depicted as occurring during the reign of King Herod who died in 4BCE. However, Luke's gospel has Jesus' birth occur after a census ordered while Quirinius was governor of Syria. Quirinius was not appointed governor of Syria until 6CE. So both stories cannot be true. This is not a difference in detail. This is a direct contradiction.

    Which census are the gospel writers referring to?

    There was more than one census taken during the time line 10 B.C and 6 A.D.
    We know that Rome issued decrees that a census must be taken every 14 years for example. And this decree doesn't include regional governors taking a census at their own behest.

    Here is another thought
    St. Luke had made careful inquiry about the facts he relates in his Gospel; he had "diligently attained to all things from the beginning", and that too from those who "were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word" (i, 2, 3). For such a man it seems incredible that he should not have taken the trouble to inquire, not as to some petty Jewish custom, but as to such a public and important event as a Roman census, and to have made himself acquainted with the name of the Roman governor at the time.

    At the same time it is not clear what the explanation of the note about Quirinius is. Some suggest that próte has, as it undoubtedly has sometimes in classical Greek, the force of prótera, so that the sense of the passage would be: "This census was held before that which took place when Quirinius was governor of Syria". But there is another explanation. It is true the writer of the article on Chronology in Cheyne's "Encyclopædia" says, with characteristic positiveness, that "any census in Judea before the well-known one in the year A.D. 7 is impossible". But on the other hand, Turner, in Hastings' "Dictionary", thinks that there is no inherent improbability in the hypothesis of a census in Judea somewhere within the years 8-5 B.C. There is very little doubt, from an inscription found at Tivoli in 1764, that Quirinius was twice governor of Syria; once, as is well known, from a. D. 6-11, but also once at an earlier period. Not at the time of Herod's death, for Quinctilius Varus was then governor; and before him came Sentius Saturninus from 9-6 B.C., before him Titius. But there is no reason why Quirinius should not be placed after Varus. In that case Saturninus would have been the one to begin the census; it would have been suspended for a time, on account of the death of Herod, and then continued and completed under Quirinius, so that his name would have been associated with it. Perhaps this may explain why Tertullian speaks of a census made by Sentius Saturninus under Augustus (Adv. Marcionem, iv, 19); but it is hardly likely, if he had found another and, apparently, a wrong name in St. Luke, that he would not have taken any notice, or given any explanation of it
    http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03731a.htm

    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    And here's another one.

    In Mark's gospel Jesus and his disciples celebrate the Last Supper which is the passover sedr, the feast eaten on passover eve. He is then arrested, taken away, tried and executed the next day on Passover (something btw the Jews would never have done). However, John's gospel places the last supper on the day before and the execution on Passover eve. This is a direct contraditiction. It's not a disagreement over detail.

    “Passover” could refer to the one day feast and to the seven day “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which followed it. During these days festival meals were eaten each night. That means that the Jewish leaders’ refusal to enter the Praetorium “that they might eat the Passover” could refer to any meal during the “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which was also called the Passover
    oldrnwisr wrote: »

    Or another one:

    And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ. Matthew 1:16

    And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli.
    Luke 3:23

    Hmmm.
    You're not aware of the requirement of the Jewish legal sanction and customary practice of the time to refer to a son-in-law as son?
    This is what Luke's gospel appears to have done.

    Another explanation could be that under the Law a surviving brother had the raise the children of his dead brother.
    Therefore a person can be a son by Law, but be a son by nature.
    The solution given by some to this difficulty is that Joseph was by nature the son of Jacob, but by law the son of Heli. By the old law (Deut. xxv. 5) a surviving brother had to raise up seed to his dead brother, and the brother who had died childless was held to be the legal father of these sons. Now Jesca, says Euthymius, married Mathat, and by him had Heli, then she married Mathan, and by him had Jacob. Heli died without issue, and his brother Jacob married his wife in accordance with the law, and Joseph was his son by her, being, therefore, naturally the son of Jacob, but legally of Heli.
    http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.ie/2011/07/why-isnt-joachim-mentioned-in-jesus.html

    The genealogy outlined by Matthew runs from Adam to Jesus, where as the genealogy outlined by Luke runs from Jesus to Adam.

    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Neither Matthew or Mark are directly reporting what Jesus said because neither of them were contemporaries or eyewitnesses.

    :rolleyes:


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    hinault wrote: »
    Which census are the gospel writers referring to?

    There was more than one census taken during the time line 10 B.C and 6 A.D.
    We know that Rome issued decrees that a census must be taken every 14 years for example. And this decree doesn't include regional governors taking a census at their own behest.

    Here is another thought

    http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03731a.htm




    “Passover” could refer to the one day feast and to the seven day “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which followed it. During these days festival meals were eaten each night. That means that the Jewish leaders’ refusal to enter the Praetorium “that they might eat the Passover” could refer to any meal during the “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which was also called the Passover



    Hmmm.
    You're not aware of the requirement of the Jewish legal sanction and customary practice of the time to refer to a son-in-law as son?
    This is what Luke's gospel appears to have done.

    Another explanation could be that under the Law a surviving brother had the raise the children of his dead brother.
    Therefore a person can be a son by Law, but be a son by nature.


    http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.ie/2011/07/why-isnt-joachim-mentioned-in-jesus.html

    The genealogy outlined by Matthew runs from Adam to Jesus, where as the genealogy outlined by Luke runs from Jesus to Adam.




    :rolleyes:


    Personally the discrepancies on the detail I find of little consequence.
    The leading theory was that the Gospel of Mark was written first then the Gospel of Matthew and Luke sources Mark so it questions how independent each of the gospels really where...

    And before you get on your high horse this is not my theory this is the leading theory by historians.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Marcan_priority


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,932 ✭✭✭hinault


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Well I don't accept it's inerrant for a start, so let's get that out of the way.

    What you accept or refuse to accept is of zero interest to me.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Anyway, getting back to the point, the fact that Jesus doesn't mention any other type of relationship means just that he doesn't mention it. We can't say whether Jesus would or would not have condoned a gay marriage.

    No.

    What we can say unambiguously is that Jesus Christ countenanced only form of marriage namely marriage between one and one woman.

    By all means waste time your own time trying to second guess what isn't countenanced.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    OK, there are a couple of mistakes with your argument here.

    Firstly, none of the early NT manuscripts that have been discovered date to the 1st century. The earliest manuscript which has been found to date is the Rylands Papyrus P52 which contains a fragment of John (18:31-33; 18:37-38) and is dated to 125CE. Of the early manuscripts only 5 date to the 2nd century, all of the rest are much older.

    Live Science reported in January 2015 that Craig Evans, a professor of New Testament studies at Acadia Divinity College in Nova Scotia, and an associated team of three dozen researchers and scholars have unmasked what is thought to be a written portion of the Gospel of Mark, that possibly dates back as early as 80 A.D in Egypt. The fragment was discovered in the tomb of a pharaoh.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    There are not 5000 copies of each gospel.

    No one here said that there was.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    There are not 5000 copies of whole documents.

    No one here said that there was.
    oldrnwisr wrote:
    However, since none of the gospels were written before 70CE and none of them by eyewitnesses, we cannot have much confidence that the events they describe are recorded accurately. The early church fathers and even the evangelists themselves realised that the gospels are not historical accounts, they are theological accounts, stories intended to stoke the fire of faith in existing Christians and converts alike.

    The gospels claim to be an account of the life and works of Jesus Christ. In that context they are an historical document of that life and ministry.

    The gospels have never claimed to be a wider account of history generally for that region during the life of Jesus Christ.

    In terms of the gospels not being an eye witness account. John's gospel, thought to be the most recently written gospel finishes with
    This saying therefore went abroad among the brethren, that that disciple should not die. And Jesus did not say to him: He should not die; but, So I will have him to remain till I come, what is it to thee?

    This is that disciple who giveth testimony of these things, and hath written these things; and we know that his testimony is true.

    But there are also many other things which Jesus did; which, if they were written every one, the world itself, I think, would not be able to contain the books that should be written.

    Here is a useful discourse as to the eye witness reliability of the Gospels.
    http://www.bethinking.org/is-the-bible-reliable/new-evidence-the-gospels-were-based-on-eyewitness-accounts


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,372 ✭✭✭steamengine


    SW wrote: »
    That's exactly the point oldrnwisr was making.

    To give another example.

    A person tells people a story in which their dad drove them to the cinema to meet some friends.

    What you are doing essentially, is claiming that based on the story they tell, that they are opposed to women drivers.

    Really ? A better method would be for posters to back up their hypothetical alluding to possible alternative forms of marriage, at that period of history.

    'Jesuitical' types of arguments just come across as being weak.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,651 ✭✭✭ShowMeTheCash


    hinault wrote: »
    No.

    What we can say unambiguously is that Jesus Christ countenanced only form of marriage namely marriage between one and one woman.

    By all means waste time your own time trying to second guess what isn't countenanced.
    You should really stop using words like unambiguously and facts you appear to have no idea what these words mean.
    hinault wrote: »
    Live Science reported in January 2015 that Craig Evans, a professor of New Testament studies at Acadia Divinity College in Nova Scotia, and an associated team of three dozen researchers and scholars have unmasked what is thought to be a written portion of the Gospel of Mark, that possibly dates back as early as 80 A.D in Egypt. The fragment was discovered in the tomb of a pharaoh.

    I love how you actually support a statement by putting forward what you think is an argument.

    Let' me pull some key things from the above.

    Possibly as early as 80 A.D, so 80 A.D is probably as early as this could be but perhaps a little later, either way whoever wrote this it very doubtful it was Mark.
    A fragment was found, again not the whole manuscript as suggested the first full manuscripts comes later.
    hinault wrote: »
    The gospels claim to be an account of the life and works of Jesus Christ. In that context they are an historical document of that life and ministry.

    The Gospels claim to be an eye witness account but historically we have no evidence that the manuscripts are primary accounts, secondary accounts or that events have been adapted or changed from the time of Jesus to the earliest documented texts the ambiguity of their origins historically needs to place questions over their content.
    Just like any other historical source!

    hinault wrote: »
    In terms of the gospels not being an eye witness account. John's gospel, thought to be the most recently written gospel finishes with

    I find this amazing - You are now pointing to the actual text of the Gospel to try and prove it's legitimacy.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    hinault wrote: »
    Which census are the gospel writers referring to?

    There was more than one census taken during the time line 10 B.C and 6 A.D.
    We know that Rome issued decrees that a census must be taken every 14 years for example. And this decree doesn't include regional governors taking a census at their own behest.

    Here is another thought

    http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/03731a.htm

    Have you read your own link, because it doesn't support your argument in the way you think it does.

    Firstly, there is disagreement between scholars as to whether there even could have been another census in the timeframe you mention. As Cheyne comments:
    "any census in Judea before the well-known one in the year A.D. 7 is impossible"

    However, let's say that there might have been a second census. The sticking point however is Luke's claim that Quirinius was the governor at the time of the census. Even your own link shows that Quirinius, even had he held the position earlier, could not have been governor at a point when Matthew places the nativity:

    "Not at the time of Herod's death, for Quinctilius Varus was then governor; and before him came Sentius Saturninus from 9-6 B.C., before him Titius. But there is no reason why Quirinius should not be placed after Varus."


    The earliest that Quirinius could have taken up position as governor was after the death of Herod, so the contradiction with Matthew's version of events remains.

    Finally, the linguistic argument in your link is also wrong.

    "Some suggest that próte has, as it undoubtedly has sometimes in classical Greek, the force of prótera, so that the sense of the passage would be: "This census was held before that which took place when Quirinius was governor of Syria". "


    Prote in Greek is used in the context of the line in Luke:

    "This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria."


    The word prote is never used in the NT with the suggestion of something happening before something else. It is only ever used to indicate the beginning of something as in Ephesians 6:2 where it refers to the first commandment.

    So, all in all, there's no evidence to support the idea that there is any way to reconcile the disparity between Matthew's and Luke's version of events.

    hinault wrote: »
    “Passover” could refer to the one day feast and to the seven day “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which followed it. During these days festival meals were eaten each night. That means that the Jewish leaders’ refusal to enter the Praetorium “that they might eat the Passover” could refer to any meal during the “Feast of Unleavened Bread” which was also called the Passover

    Except that the passages in the gospels are quite specific.

    Mark 14:12 for example states that:

    "On the first day of the Festival of Unleavened Bread, when it was customary to sacrifice the Passover lamb, Jesus’ disciples asked him, “Where do you want us to go and make preparations for you to eat the Passover?”"


    while John 19:14 states:

    "It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon.“Here is your king,” Pilate said to the Jews.

    So both gospels are explicitly talking about different days. Moreover John 13 also puts the last supper on a different day to Mark. However, the reason for this is quite clear, Mark who is unfamiliar with Jewish law makes several key mistakes about Jesus' trial which John corrects. Among the mistakes made by Mark are:

    • The trial would never have been held at night as it would have been contrary to Jewish law.
    • The trial would only have taken place in the Hall of Hewn Stones in the temple and not in the home of a council member.
    • The trial would never have been conducted so close to Passover (Passover eve in the synoptics)
    • Sentences in such trials were not pronounced for 24 hours and not immediately in the case of Jesus.
    If Mark's gospel is correct then Jesus would have been executed during Passover, something not permissible under Jewish law. John moves the date so that the crucifixion takes place on the day before Passover, removing the mistake.





    hinault wrote: »
    Hmmm.
    You're not aware of the requirement of the Jewish legal sanction and customary practice of the time to refer to a son-in-law as son?
    This is what Luke's gospel appears to have done.

    Another explanation could be that under the Law a surviving brother had the raise the children of his dead brother.
    Therefore a person can be a son by Law, but be a son by nature.


    http://newtheologicalmovement.blogspot.ie/2011/07/why-isnt-joachim-mentioned-in-jesus.html

    The genealogy outlined by Matthew runs from Adam to Jesus, where as the genealogy outlined by Luke runs from Jesus to Adam.

    OK, there are two prevailing theories which try to reconcile the different genealogies in Matthew and Luke, neither of which are what you would call persuasive. Firstly though, let's look at both lists in the interests of clarity.

    Matthew

    Abraham was the father of Isaac, Isaac the father of Jacob, Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers, Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezron, Hezron the father of Ram, Ram the father of Amminadab, Amminadab the father of Nahshon, Nahshon the father of Salmon, Salmon the father of Boaz, whose mother was Rahab, Boaz the father of Obed, whose mother was Ruth, Obed the father of Jesse, and Jesse the father of King David.

    David was the father of Solomon, whose mother had been Uriah’s wife, Solomon the father of Rehoboam, Rehoboam the father of Abijah,
    Abijah the father of Asa, Asa the father of Jehoshaphat, Jehoshaphat the father of Jehoram, Jehoram the father of Uzziah, Uzziah the father of Jotham, Jotham the father of Ahaz, Ahaz the father of Hezekiah, Hezekiah the father of Manasseh, Manasseh the father of Amon, Amon the father of Josiah, and Josiah the father of Jeconiah and his brothers at the time of the exile to Babylon.

    After the exile to Babylon: Jeconiah was the father of Shealtiel, Shealtiel the father of Zerubbabel, Zerubbabel the father of Abihud, Abihud the father of Eliakim, Eliakim the father of Azor, Azor the father of Zadok,

    Zadok the father of Akim, Akim the father of Elihud, Elihud the father of Eleazar, Eleazar the father of Matthan, Matthan the father of Jacob,
    and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, and Mary was the mother of Jesus who is called the Messiah.


    Luke



    He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph, the son of Heli, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Melki, the son of Jannai, the son of Joseph, the son of Mattathias, the son of Amos, the son of Nahum, the son of Esli, the son of Naggai, the son of Maath, the son of Mattathias, the son of Semein, the son of Josek, the son of Joda, the son of Joanan, the son of Rhesa, the son of Zerubbabel, the son of Shealtiel, the son of Neri, the son of Melki, the son of Addi, the son of Cosam, the son of Elmadam, the son of Er, the son of Joshua, the son of Eliezer, the son of Jorim, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Simeon, the son of Judah, the son of Joseph, the son of Jonam, the son of Eliakim, the son of Melea, the son of Menna, the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan, the son of David, the son of Jesse, the son of Obed, the son of Boaz, the son of Salmon, the son of Nahshon, the son of Amminadab, the son of Ram, the son of Hezron, the son of Perez, the son of Judah, the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor, the son of Serug, the son of Reu, the son of Peleg, the son of Eber, the son of Shelah, the son of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shem, the son of Noah, the son of Lamech, the son of Methuselah, the son of Enoch, the son of Jared, the son of Mahalalel, the son of Kenan, the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.


    The first observation is that there are only two names in common between the two lists (highlighted above) so its not a minor disagreement, its a major contradiction.

    The first theory which attempts to reconcile the two lists was put forward by the early Church father Eusebius. This theory states that Luke's list recounts levirate marriage i.e. that if a man died without having any sons, it was tradition for the man’s brother to marry the widow and have a son who would carry on the deceased man’s name. Thus Eusebius suggests that Joseph's mother was originally married to Heli but when Heli died without a son, she married his half-brother Jacob who fathered Joseph. Eusebius also claims further that in a previous generation that Melchi and Matthan were both married to the same woman Estha giving birth to the half-brothers Jacob and Heli. However, Eusebius doesn't reference any primary source for this or back up his claim with reference to any other text. He merely states this as a hypothesis to explain the disparity. However, if Eusebius were correct then every mother on Matthew's list (with the exception of Shealtiel) have had to have been widowed and then remarry to the names on Luke's list. That's over 40 widows who remarried in a single lineage between Abraham and Jesus. I'd like to get the odds on that in Vegas.

    A second, more recent theory has been put forward by some conservative biblical scholars namely that Matthew is tracing Jesus' patrilineal heritage through Joseph and that Luke is tracing Jesus' matrilineal heritage through Mary. They claim that both lists translate as son because there is no Greek word for son-in-law. Unfortunately, that claim is demonstrably untrue. Both Hebrew and Greek have clear words for son in law, the relevant word in this case being
    γαμπρός

    Neither of these theories are supported by evidence from either the NT or other ancient writings. They are also both based on a preconceived assumption, i.e. that there must be a way to reconcile the two lists. By excluding the idea that one or both of the lists are just plain wrong both theories are fundamentally flawed.

    hinault wrote: »
    :rolleyes:
    :confused:


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,932 ✭✭✭hinault


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Have you read your own link, because it doesn't support your argument in the way you think it does.

    Firstly, there is disagreement between scholars as to whether there even could have been another census in the timeframe you mention. As Cheyne comments:
    "any census in Judea before the well-known one in the year A.D. 7 is impossible"

    However, let's say that there might have been a second census. The sticking point however is Luke's claim that Quirinius was the governor at the time of the census. Even your own link shows that Quirinius, even had he held the position earlier, could not have been governor at a point when Matthew places the nativity:

    "Not at the time of Herod's death, for Quinctilius Varus was then governor; and before him came Sentius Saturninus from 9-6 B.C., before him Titius. But there is no reason why Quirinius should not be placed after Varus."


    The earliest that Quirinius could have taken up position as governor was after the death of Herod, so the contradiction with Matthew's version of events remains.

    Finally, the linguistic argument in your link is also wrong.

    "Some suggest that próte has, as it undoubtedly has sometimes in classical Greek, the force of prótera, so that the sense of the passage would be: "This census was held before that which took place when Quirinius was governor of Syria". "


    Prote in Greek is used in the context of the line in Luke:

    "This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria."


    The word prote is never used in the NT with the suggestion of something happening before something else. It is only ever used to indicate the beginning of something as in Ephesians 6:2 where it refers to the first commandment.

    So, all in all, there's no evidence to support the idea that there is any way to reconcile the disparity between Matthew's and Luke's version of events.




    Except that the passages in the gospels are quite specific.

    Mark 14:12 for example states that:

    "On the first day of the Festival of Unleavened Bread, when it was customary to sacrifice the Passover lamb, Jesus’ disciples asked him, “Where do you want us to go and make preparations for you to eat the Passover?”"


    while John 19:14 states:

    "It was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about noon.“Here is your king,” Pilate said to the Jews.

    So both gospels are explicitly talking about different days. Moreover John 13 also puts the last supper on a different day to Mark. However, the reason for this is quite clear, Mark who is unfamiliar with Jewish law makes several key mistakes about Jesus' trial which John corrects. Among the mistakes made by Mark are:

    • The trial would never have been held at night as it would have been contrary to Jewish law.
    • The trial would only have taken place in the Hall of Hewn Stones in the temple and not in the home of a council member.
    • The trial would never have been conducted so close to Passover (Passover eve in the synoptics)
    • Sentences in such trials were not pronounced for 24 hours and not immediately in the case of Jesus.
    If Mark's gospel is correct then Jesus would have been executed during Passover, something not permissible under Jewish law. John moves the date so that the crucifixion takes place on the day before Passover, removing the mistake.








    OK, there are two prevailing theories which try to reconcile the different genealogies in Matthew and Luke, neither of which are what you would call persuasive. Firstly though, let's look at both lists in the interests of clarity.

    Matthew

    Abraham was the father of Isaac, Isaac the father of Jacob, Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers, Judah the father of Perez and Zerah, whose mother was Tamar, Perez the father of Hezron, Hezron the father of Ram, Ram the father of Amminadab, Amminadab the father of Nahshon, Nahshon the father of Salmon, Salmon the father of Boaz, whose mother was Rahab, Boaz the father of Obed, whose mother was Ruth, Obed the father of Jesse, and Jesse the father of King David.

    David was the father of Solomon, whose mother had been Uriah’s wife, Solomon the father of Rehoboam, Rehoboam the father of Abijah,
    Abijah the father of Asa, Asa the father of Jehoshaphat, Jehoshaphat the father of Jehoram, Jehoram the father of Uzziah, Uzziah the father of Jotham, Jotham the father of Ahaz, Ahaz the father of Hezekiah, Hezekiah the father of Manasseh, Manasseh the father of Amon, Amon the father of Josiah, and Josiah the father of Jeconiah and his brothers at the time of the exile to Babylon.

    After the exile to Babylon: Jeconiah was the father of Shealtiel, Shealtiel the father of Zerubbabel, Zerubbabel the father of Abihud, Abihud the father of Eliakim, Eliakim the father of Azor, Azor the father of Zadok,

    Zadok the father of Akim, Akim the father of Elihud, Elihud the father of Eleazar, Eleazar the father of Matthan, Matthan the father of Jacob,
    and Jacob the father of Joseph, the husband of Mary, and Mary was the mother of Jesus who is called the Messiah.


    Luke



    He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph, the son of Heli, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Melki, the son of Jannai, the son of Joseph, the son of Mattathias, the son of Amos, the son of Nahum, the son of Esli, the son of Naggai, the son of Maath, the son of Mattathias, the son of Semein, the son of Josek, the son of Joda, the son of Joanan, the son of Rhesa, the son of Zerubbabel, the son of Shealtiel, the son of Neri, the son of Melki, the son of Addi, the son of Cosam, the son of Elmadam, the son of Er, the son of Joshua, the son of Eliezer, the son of Jorim, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Simeon, the son of Judah, the son of Joseph, the son of Jonam, the son of Eliakim, the son of Melea, the son of Menna, the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan, the son of David, the son of Jesse, the son of Obed, the son of Boaz, the son of Salmon, the son of Nahshon, the son of Amminadab, the son of Ram, the son of Hezron, the son of Perez, the son of Judah, the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor, the son of Serug, the son of Reu, the son of Peleg, the son of Eber, the son of Shelah, the son of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shem, the son of Noah, the son of Lamech, the son of Methuselah, the son of Enoch, the son of Jared, the son of Mahalalel, the son of Kenan, the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.


    The first observation is that there are only two names in common between the two lists (highlighted above) so its not a minor disagreement, its a major contradiction.

    The first theory which attempts to reconcile the two lists was put forward by the early Church father Eusebius. This theory states that Luke's list recounts levirate marriage i.e. that if a man died without having any sons, it was tradition for the man’s brother to marry the widow and have a son who would carry on the deceased man’s name. Thus Eusebius suggests that Joseph's mother was originally married to Heli but when Heli died without a son, she married his half-brother Jacob who fathered Joseph. Eusebius also claims further that in a previous generation that Melchi and Matthan were both married to the same woman Estha giving birth to the half-brothers Jacob and Heli. However, Eusebius doesn't reference any primary source for this or back up his claim with reference to any other text. He merely states this as a hypothesis to explain the disparity. However, if Eusebius were correct then every mother on Matthew's list (with the exception of Shealtiel) have had to have been widowed and then remarry to the names on Luke's list. That's over 40 widows who remarried in a single lineage between Abraham and Jesus. I'd like to get the odds on that in Vegas.

    A second, more recent theory has been put forward by some conservative biblical scholars namely that Matthew is tracing Jesus' patrilineal heritage through Joseph and that Luke is tracing Jesus' matrilineal heritage through Mary. They claim that both lists translate as son because there is no Greek word for son-in-law. Unfortunately, that claim is demonstrably untrue. Both Hebrew and Greek have clear words for son in law, the relevant word in this case being
    γαμπρός

    Neither of these theories are supported by evidence from either the NT or other ancient writings. They are also both based on a preconceived assumption, i.e. that there must be a way to reconcile the two lists. By excluding the idea that one or both of the lists are just plain wrong both theories are fundamentally flawed

    Some us us have jobs to hold down.

    I will address this latest set of your spurious points when I have time to do so.

    Can't recommend this highly enough

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=r5Ylt1pBMm8


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