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CGT Calculation

  • 08-01-2024 9:36pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 378 ✭✭


    Hi,

    If one has say €150k worth of shares which cost €100k, is it correct to say that CGT is only liable once above €100k worth are sold?

    If so, let’s say one sells €10k per year for ten years (100k total). From then each sale is liable for 33%? How is that declared on a tax return?

    Cheers for any replies.



Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,678 ✭✭✭nompere


    That's not how it works.


    Suppose you sell shares that are now worth €15,000, which is 1/10th of your holding. They have a cost of €10,000 (1/10th of the total cost), so there's a gain of €5,000. So, the tax is 33% of €15,000 less €10,000, less your allowance of €1,270 per year. That's €1,230.90.


    If you sell €10,000 of shares, they have a cost of 1/15th of €100,000, which is €6,667, so the gain is €3,333. If you haven't already used it, deduct the personal allowance, and the tax is 33% of that number.


    And so on ...



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 378 ✭✭PaoloGotti


    Thank you very much, really appreciate your help.



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