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Constitutional right to privacy in the home, in shared houses.

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Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 8,917 ✭✭✭GM228


    There is no exemption in the law as far as I can recall for 'medical reasons' and so where are you getting the 'Not Guilty' conclusion from here?

    All of the ingredients of the crime are met, such as they are. The person exposed his genitals intending to cause alarm. That is a criminal act, according to the statute.

    There is no exemption for medical reasons and there is no need for one because patients don't expose their genitals to a doctor with intent to cause fear, alarm or distress in that doctor, you expose them with intent to (a) show evidence of whatever medical condition you may have, and (b) to receive a diagnosis and/or treatment.

    Do you honestly think any one can foresee a doctor being distressed, upset etc by seeing their genitals when it's part of their job and something they see on a regular basis?


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