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Two Questions, One Answer

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  • 26-05-2019 10:23am
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 19,802 ✭✭✭✭


    In relation to the recent divorce referendum; two seperate questions were asked but it was only possible to give one and the same answer to both.

    Is this legal/constitutional? Has a precedent been set here?

    Now it just so happens that this time round, the questions were fairly innocuous or at least non contentious going by the result but in future referenda will it be possible for a government to shoehorn and unpopular question in with another say?

    It dosnt smell quite kosher to me.


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,420 ✭✭✭MrFresh


    Can you clarify what you are talking about? There was only one question asked. Do you approve or not?


  • Registered Users Posts: 19,802 ✭✭✭✭suicide_circus




  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,420 ✭✭✭MrFresh


    Ah right, I get you now.


  • Technology & Internet Moderators Posts: 28,798 Mod ✭✭✭✭oscarBravo


    In relation to the recent divorce referendum; two seperate questions were asked but it was only possible to give one and the same answer to both.
    Strictly speaking, only one question was asked: do you approve of the proposal to amend the constitution?

    That amendment will have two distinct consequences. If you happen to approve of one consequence but not the other, you have a choice to make.

    Is it legal? Is it constitutional? Yes, and yes. Does it set a precedent? No.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,599 ✭✭✭✭28064212


    Has a precedent been set? No, lots of the amendments made multiple changes. Take a look at the 33rd. It would be entirely legal and constitutional to draft a new constitution from scratch that was totally different to the current one, and have a single referendum for it

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  • Registered Users Posts: 15,926 ✭✭✭✭Spanish Eyes


    I wondered about this too, but didn't worry too much about it regarding the issues on the ballot paper.

    I am sure there would be separate questions for other issues. Or just one at a time per referendum.

    The reality is, Foreign Divorces are already recognised here, but in certain cases they are not. It is just cleaning things up. If a divorce is legal in another jurisdiction it should be recognised here too.


  • Registered Users Posts: 11,805 ✭✭✭✭expectationlost


    In relation to the recent divorce referendum; two seperate questions were asked but it was only possible to give one and the same answer to both.

    Is this legal/constitutional? Has a precedent been set here?

    Now it just so happens that this time round, the questions were fairly innocuous or at least non contentious going by the result but in future referenda will it be possible for a government to shoehorn and unpopular question in with another say?

    It dosnt smell quite kosher to me.
    you are voting whether you approve of this one bill https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thirty-eighth_Amendment_of_the_Constitution_Bill_2016


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