Advertisement
If you have a new account but are having problems posting or verifying your account, please email us on hello@boards.ie for help. Thanks :)
Hello all! Please ensure that you are posting a new thread or question in the appropriate forum. The Feedback forum is overwhelmed with questions that are having to be moved elsewhere. If you need help to verify your account contact hello@boards.ie

The Story of Jesus

Options
  • 10-12-2018 3:37pm
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 3,194 ✭✭✭


    Hi,
    How accurate is the whole story of Jesus in the stable ?
    Wasn't he born in an INN ? or was it actually in the stable of the INN?


«1

Comments

  • Registered Users Posts: 686 ✭✭✭Terrlock


    TomSweeney wrote: »
    Hi,
    How accurate is the whole story of Jesus in the stable ?
    Wasn't he born in an INN ? or was it actually in the stable of the INN?

    Have you read any of the gospels in the new Testament?

    Have a read of the first 10 chapters of the first 4 books in the New Testament and come back and let us know if you have further questions


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,194 ✭✭✭TomSweeney


    I did, and it was talking about the INN being full ?

    - I guess cos it was Christmas yeah ? :P sorry couldn't resist the Ali G joke there ...



    edit - but seriously, some say the INN some stay the stable ... maybe different gospels ..


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,497 ✭✭✭Yester


    Luke 2:4-7 says, “Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judea, to the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, because he was of the house and lineage of David…And she brought forth her firstborn Son, and wrapped Him in swaddling cloths, and laid Him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.”

    Although here is an interesting article that suggests that depending on the interpretation of the word
    kataluma he may indeed have been born in the inn.

    https://www.psephizo.com/biblical-studies/jesus-was-not-born-in-a-stable/

    Edit: You may already have heard of this, lol.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    TomSweeney wrote: »
    Hi,
    How accurate is the whole story of Jesus in the stable ?
    Wasn't he born in an INN ? or was it actually in the stable of the INN?


    Well, the short answer is that it isn't accurate.



    The longer answer depends on reading the bible horizontally (i.e. comparing the different gospel stories against each other).


    You see, of the four gospel stories, only two of them feature a nativity narrative (Matthew and Luke). These two stories, however, contradict each other on every major point of the story.


    Matthew's nativity story opens with Herod's reign in Judea. He places Jesus birth up to two years before the death of King Herod in 4BCE. However, Luke's story opens with the census under Quirinius, who wasn't appointed governor until 6CE. So already, right from the start you have an irreconcilable 10 year gap to contend with.


    In Matthew's story Joseph and Mary are living in Bethlehem at the time of Jesus' birth. Matthew 2:11 states that the Magi visited them in a house. The move to Nazareth doesn't take place until after the flight into Egypt prompted by Matthew's vain attempt to distort two separate OT passages in order to make it look like a prophecy about Jesus.

    In Luke, by contrast, Joseph and Mary enter the story already living in Nazareth and must undertake the journey to Bethlehem in order to fulfill Luke's preposterous global census.



    Going back to Matthew 2, because of the context in which the story of the massacre of the innocents is framed, it is reasonable to deduce that Joseph and Mary are still living in Bethlehem approximately two years after Jesus' birth. However, in Luke Joseph and Mary travel to Jerusalem after a month and a half (41 days) to present Jesus in the temple. Following this in Luke 2:39 they go straight back to Nazareth.


    There are other minor inconsistencies, contradictions and errors when you look at the two stories, but the points above give the basic idea. Both stories cannot be true, and its likely that neither story is accurate. Both stories were written anonymously, approximately 50-70 years after the events they depict by people living in a different country speaking a different language.


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 26,165 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    What oldrnwiser said. We have two accounts of the birth of Jesus, and they differ from one another in many points.

    If you had to bet on which one is more likely to be closer to the truth, probably pick Luke. Matthew's is more fanciful, and Matthew has form here anyway - his gospel is full of obviously invented flourishes which are designed to underline a theological point rather than to record an event.

    But the truth is that both nativity stories are likely to be constructs aimed to make theological points, rather than records of anybody's memories of the events concerned.

    But the fact that they differ so widely is, in one way, helpful. It underlines that they are independent constructions; Matthew wasn't starting with Luke's story and then embroidering it, or vice versa.

    Which makes it interesting to look at what the stories have in common. It would be an amazing coincidence if Matthew and Luke both constructed details and they independently constructed the same detail. So the details they have in common are likely not constructs by Matthew and Luke, but records of what was already widely established/accepted when they were writing. Both stories link Jesus to Nazareth, for example, even though for theological reasons both writers want to link him to Bethlehem. The likely explanation for this is that Jesus was, in fact, known to from Nazareth, and this was a fact that the writers had to address in their respective stories. By the same token, both writers were working with an established common memory that the parents of Jesus were named Joseph and Mary, and the parsimonious explanation for this is that it was true. Etc, etc.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    But the truth is that both nativity stories are likely to be constructs aimed to make theological points, rather than records of anybody's memories of the events concerned.


    OP, if there's one thing you take away from this thread let it be this. I neglected to point this out in my post but Peregrinus has made the best point here. The gospels are theological documents intended to spark or encourage faith within the reader. They are not intended to be literal, reliable histories.



    Peregrinus wrote: »
    But the fact that they differ so widely is, in one way, helpful. It underlines that they are independent constructions; Matthew wasn't starting with Luke's story and then embroidering it, or vice versa.

    Which makes it interesting to look at what the stories have in common. It would be an amazing coincidence if Matthew and Luke both constructed details and they independently constructed the same detail. So the details they have in common are likely not constructs by Matthew and Luke, but records of what was already widely established/accepted when they were writing. Both stories link Jesus to Nazareth, for example, even though for theological reasons both writers want to link him to Bethlehem. The likely explanation for this is that Jesus was, in fact, known to from Nazareth, and this was a fact that the writers had to address in their respective stories. By the same token, both writers were working with an established common memory that the parents of Jesus were named Joseph and Mary, and the parsimonious explanation for this is that it was true. Etc, etc.




    I have to disagree with you on this point Peregrinus. The parsimonious explanation for the condition of the Luke/Matthew stories being so conflicted is that Luke did indeed copy from Matthew. This may not seem like it given the vast difference between the accounts but it become clearer in a moment.


    First, let's talk about the elephant in the room. The Q "hypothesis". Despite over 200 years of searching we are still no closer to discovering any kind of Q document. Not even a fragment. Since the idea of a Q-like source was first proposed by Herbert Marsh in 1801, much scholarly debate has surrounded Q but very little has actually been substantitated. Instead of narrowing down the problem and eliminating any wrong answers, we now have even more hypotheses and dead ends. We have the two source hypothesis, the three source hypothesis, the Q+/Papias hypothesis. Q is mostly proposed as a sayings gospel but then you've got the problem of the nativity and the question of how an obvious narrative account winds up in a sayings gospel.



    Second, beyond the issues with Q unto itself as a documentary hypothesis, there is also a strong case to be made for Luke using Matthew as a source. We'll start with the general case and then loop back to the nativity story.

    Luke's use of Matthew is evident through editorial fatigue, those places where Luke copies a story from Matthew and changes or omits a word/phrase/story element resulting in a less coherent narrative than the original.
    The first example of this is this passage from Matthew Chapter 10:


    "Whatever town or village you enter, search there for some worthy person and stay at their house until you leave. As you enter the home, give it your greeting. If the home is deserving, let your peace rest on it; if it is not, let your peace return to you. If anyone will not welcome you or listen to your words, leave that home or town and shake the dust off your feet."


    Now, let's see the parallel passage in Luke:


    "Whatever house you enter, stay there until you leave that town. 5 If people do not welcome you, leave their town and shake the dust off your feet as a testimony against them.”


    Here, we see the problem. Luke copies the story from Matthew but omits the opening of the passage where Matthew specifies that the disciples are entering a town or village. Luke opens with entering a house but then skips back to town, resulting in a less coherent passage. In this case, Luke changes the word town (polin) in Matthew to house (oikian) but then later forgets himself and uses town, now without any surrounding context.


    Luke makes this same mistake in Greek again in Luke 7 with the story of the centurion's servant. In Matthew's version he consistently refers to the servant as pais. However, Luke opens his story by referring to the servant as doulos. However, later in chapter 7 he switches back to pais.



    We see evidence of these kind of mistakes by Luke throughout his gospel including 19:24/Matthew 25:28, Luke 10:23-24/Matthew 13:16-17 and Luke 17:1-2, Matthew 18:6-9. However, in the double tradition, we don't see any of examples of similar editorial fatigue present in Matthew.


    So, there is general evidence that Luke copied Matthew, but how does that inform the nativity story. Well, here's how it goes. Both Matthew and Luke copy from Mark. I don't think that is in dispute. So, what we do know from Mark is that Jesus came from Nazareth. That's it. Now Matthew has a reason for changing the nativity to Bethlehem, his misread "prophecy" from Micah 5:2. Now later, in Matthew's narrative he also misquotes two more OT passages for the purposes of the story, Hosea 11:1 and Jeremiah 31:15. So, the flight into Egypt is a necessary step, so that the return from Egypt can be seen as a fulfillment of Hosea 11:1. But that requires a reason to flee to Egypt, hence the fictitious massacre of the innocents.



    This is where Luke comes in. He knows, because of Mark's original that Jesus comes from Nazareth. But now Matthew puts the birth in Bethlehem. So Luke has to find a reason to get Joseph and Mary from Nazareth to Bethlehem. So he borrows the census of Quirinius (from another one of his frequently used sources Josephus, Ant. 18.1.1) in order to fill in the gap. So, now Luke bizarrely has people shuffling their way around Palestine to the city that their ancestors came from 1000 years previously and also Luke now has Herod still alive and king at the same time as Quirinius is the governor. As I've said in the examples above, where Luke borrows from Matthew he makes these kinds of changes that result in a much more distorted and confusing story.



    Luke, changes the Matthean narrative, omitting the flight into Egypt and the prophetic overtones and instead focusing on the temple story, where he again borrows from Josephus, this time from Josephus' own account of his life. The changes that Luke makes to Matthew are indicative of his intent to appeal to a wider audience. Whereas Matthew's genealogy is from Abraham to Jesus, Luke's stretches all the way to Adam. Luke isn't out to win over the Jews and portray Jesus as the Messiah in the same way Matthew is. Instead, Luke is out to create a global Messiah, a Jesus that will appeal to both Jew and Gentile alike.



    Although, this is still a minority opinion, it has been well defended by Austin Farrer, Denis MacDonald, Michael Goulder, Mark Goodacre and others. However, both Q and the Farrer hypothesis leave unanswered questions. On balance, taking everything into account, including the total absence of Q, the most parsimonious explanation is that Luke is another rewrite of the gospel, copying from both Mark and Matthew.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,165 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    I take your points, and yet I see a problem. To me, it doesn't make a huge amount of sense that Luke borrows material from Matthew but then adapts it by (a) omitting much of it, and (b) taking Matthew's consistent terminology, storylines, etc and rendering them inconsistent. I don't think "editorial fatigue" is a very convincing explanation for this. Editorially, the easiest course would be to incorporate passages without adaptation, surely?

    Is there a reason why we might reject the alternative hypothesis, that Matthew is drawing on Luke, but amplifying his stories, and amending them for greater consistency? Without having thought too deeply about it, that seems more plausible to me than the idea that Luke borrows from Matthew but degrades the borrowed material.

    As to Q, I accept that it's a hypothesis. I don't think the hypothesis is undermined by the fact that no trace of Q has ever been discovered; the hypothesis is that Q is a now-lost source, and there's nothing implausible in suggesting that no complete or partial manuscript of Q has ever been found. There may not have been that many copies to begin with, and none may have survived. Which means that Q must forever remain a hypothesis, but that doesn't make it an implausible hypothesis.

    As for how a supposed saying gospel comes to have a nativity story, I don't think it needs to. If neither Matthew nor Luke draws on the other, the common elements in their nativity story suggest they must be drawing on a common source, but it need not be Q. The identification of Jesus's parents as Mary and Joseph, for example, could have been an established tradition, independently of Q. So, conceivably, could be the tradition locating the birth in Bethlehem. Even if we take this to be a construct, and not a construct by Matthew or Luke, it doesn't have to be a construct by the author of Q. It could have been a construct which had come to be accepted by the time Matthew and Luke were writing, and which was embodied in the oral tradition. No?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    I take your points, and yet I see a problem. To me, it doesn't make a huge amount of sense that Luke borrows material from Matthew but then adapts it by (a) omitting much of it, and (b) taking Matthew's consistent terminology, storylines, etc and rendering them inconsistent. I don't think "editorial fatigue" is a very convincing explanation for this. Editorially, the easiest course would be to incorporate passages without adaptation, surely?


    OK, there are several points to note here.



    First, yes, both major hypotheses Q and no-Q have their problems. Virtually every major reconstructive hypothesis in biblical studies has similar unanswered questions. Look at attempts to reconstruct the vorlage of Josephus' Testimonium, we have scholars arguing for a neutral vorlage, a positive vorlage, a negative one and some arguing that the entire passage is a fabrication. In each case, some key questions are answered by the hypothesis but others are left unanswered or problematic. So it is with the synoptic problem. No hypothesis has been able to render an answer sufficiently on all points, what we are seeking is the one with the most explanatory power and the best balance of the evidence.


    Second, the idea of editorial fatigue is a minor secondary line of evidence in the no-Q hypothesis. It is used to show that it is Luke who used Matthew and not the other way around. However, the idea that Luke and Matthew are interdependent is principally supported by the "Minor Agreements". In particular there are numerous instances in passages which are common to all three synoptic gospels which agree in Matthew and Luke against Mark. Take the opening of Mark's gospel for example. In Mark we get the passage:


    "The beginning of the good news about Jesus the Messiah, the Son of God, as it is written in Isaiah the prophet:“I will send my messenger ahead of you,
    who will prepare your way”
    “a voice of one calling in the wilderness,
    ‘Prepare the way for the Lord,
    make straight paths for him.’”

    And so John the Baptist appeared in the wilderness, preaching a baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins. The whole Judean countryside and all the people of Jerusalem went out to him. Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River. John wore clothing made of camel’s hair, with a leather belt around his waist, and he ate locusts and wild honey. And this was his message: “After me comes the one more powerful than I, the straps of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie. I baptize you with water, but he will baptize you with the Holy Spirit.”

    now let's see the equivalent passages in Matthew and Luke:

    "This is he who was spoken of through the prophet Isaiah:“A voice of one calling in the wilderness,
    ‘Prepare the way for the Lord,
    make straight paths for him.’”

    John’s clothes were made of camel’s hair, and he had a leather belt around his waist. His food was locusts and wild honey. People went out to him from Jerusalem and all Judea and the whole region of the Jordan. Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River.
    But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to where he was baptizing, he said to them: “You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the coming wrath? Produce fruit in keeping with repentance. And do not think you can say to yourselves, ‘We have Abraham as our father.’ I tell you that out of these stones God can raise up children for Abraham. The ax is already at the root of the trees, and every tree that does not produce good fruit will be cut down and thrown into the fire.
    “I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire."


    As it is written in the book of the words of Isaiah the prophet:“A voice of one calling in the wilderness,
    ‘Prepare the way for the Lord,
    make straight paths for him.
    Every valley shall be filled in,
    every mountain and hill made low.
    The crooked roads shall become straight,
    the rough ways smooth.
    And all people will see God’s salvation.’”

    John said to the crowds coming out to be baptized by him, “You brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the coming wrath?Produce fruit in keeping with repentance. And do not begin to say to yourselves, ‘We have Abraham as our father.’ For I tell you that out of these stones God can raise up children for Abraham. The ax is already at the root of the trees, and every tree that does not produce good fruit will be cut down and thrown into the fire.”
    “What should we do then?” the crowd asked.
    John answered, “Anyone who has two shirts should share with the one who has none, and anyone who has food should do the same.”
    Even tax collectors came to be baptized. “Teacher,” they asked, “what should we do?”
    “Don’t collect any more than you are required to,” he told them.
    Then some soldiers asked him, “And what should we do?”
    He replied, “Don’t extort money and don’t accuse people falsely—be content with your pay.”
    The people were waiting expectantly and were all wondering in their hearts if John might possibly be the Messiah. John answered them all, “I baptize you with water. But one who is more powerful than I will come, the straps of whose sandals I am not worthy to untie. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.



    So above, we can see (highlighted in bold) text that is shared in Matthew and Luke but not found in Mark. We also see (highlighted in italics) text unique to Luke (with sentiments similar to Acts 4:32).



    Another example of this is in Mark 3


    " So Jesus called them over to him and began to speak to them in parables: “How can Satan drive out Satan? 24 If a kingdom is divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand. 25 If a house is divided against itself, that house cannot stand. 26 And if Satan opposes himself and is divided, he cannot stand; his end has come. 27 In fact, no one can enter a strong man’s house without first tying him up. Then he can plunder the strong man’s house.



    and its parallel passages in Matthew 12 and Luke 11:


    Jesus knew their thoughts and said to them, “Every kingdom divided against itself will be ruined, and every city or household divided against itself will not stand. If Satan drives out Satan, he is divided against himself. How then can his kingdom stand? And if I drive out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your people drive them out? So then, they will be your judges. But if it is by the Spirit of God that I drive out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. “Or again, how can anyone enter a strong man’s house and carry off his possessions unless he first ties up the strong man? Then he can plunder his house.



    Jesus knew their thoughts and said to them: “Any kingdom divided against itself will be ruined, and a house divided against itself will fall. If Satan is divided against himself, how can his kingdom stand? I say this because you claim that I drive out demons by Beelzebul. Now if I drive out demons by Beelzebul, by whom do your followers drive them out? So then, they will be your judges. But if I drive out demons by the finger of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.
    “When a strong man, fully armed, guards his own house, his possessions are safe. But when someone stronger attacks and overpowers him, he takes away the armor in which the man trusted and divides up his plunder.


    Now, this passage is interesting for two reasons. Firstly, it contains an unambiguous agreement between Matthew and Luke against Mark. Secondly, it contains an extra preface to Matthew's addition by Luke.



    There are numerous other examples of this phenomenon including Matthew 13:11/Luke 8:10, Matthew 10:10/Luke 10:7, Matthew 10:16/Luke 10:3 etc. etc. However, I think those presented above demonstrate the point quite effectively.





    Third, it's not always a case of omission by Luke.

    In some cases, like Luke 3 above, he adds extra material to segue into a new point. For example, at the end of the Isaiah (actually Malachi) quote, Luke adds the line: "And all people will see God's salvation." This is added to reinforce Luke's overall message that salvation is open to all people both Jew and Gentile.

    In other cases, such as the nativity story, it's not an omission as much as a replacement. Luke doesn't just leave out the massacre of the innocents and the flight to Egypt, he replaces them with the temple story, not found in Matthew. This seems to be done partly to play down the messianic overtones of Matthew and partly to utilise more of his favourite source, Josephus.


    Finally, with regard to editorial fatigue.

    It should be pointed out here, that the gospel writers weren't sitting down to write a second or a third or a fourth gospel. What we're talking about here is "The Gospel of Jesus Christ according to Luke". Both Matthew and Luke are rewriting the Gospel, the only Gospel. As far as they're concerned there is only one gospel. What they are doing is rewriting the gospel and changing it to fit their particular theological agenda.

    So, when Luke goes to write his gospel he is copying from an already existing work he isn't writing this from memory. This is where the editorial fatigue comes in. We should remember that the original gospel manuscripts look very different from our bibles today. No verse numbers, no paragraphs, no capitalisation, no punctuation. Just a block of text. So it is easy when copying for your eye to skip down to a different instance of a word you've just copied. This is a well-established phenomenon in textual criticism known as parablepsis, in particular parablepsis occasioned by homoeoteleuton (where a verse or passage ends with the same string of text) or homoeoarcton (where a verse or passage begins with the same string of text). This is seen in Matthew 5:19-20 where the presence of the same string of letters: ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν at the end of the first and last sentence of verse 19 and the last sentence of verse 20 has given rise to a haplographic omission in both the Codex Sinaiticus (where most of verse 19 is deleted) and the Codex Bezae (where everything between the end of the first sentence of verse 19 and the end of verse 20 is deleted).
    So, in the case of the centurion's servant. Luke makes a conscious change to doulos at the beginning of the story but lapses back into pais as he continues to copy the text. There are numerous other examples across the NT of just this kind of error.






    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Is there a reason why we might reject the alternative hypothesis, that Matthew is drawing on Luke, but amplifying his stories, and amending them for greater consistency? Without having thought too deeply about it, that seems more plausible to me than the idea that Luke borrows from Matthew but degrades the borrowed material.


    The idea has been floated before as a solution to the synoptic problem, largely by Alan Garrow but it has also received mention by BJ Streeter. However, both Bart Ehrman and Mark Goodacre have outlined flaws in Garrow's argument. In particular the central support for Garrow's argument is his claim that there is a variation in verbatim agreement between Matthew and Luke in material that they share. Garrow argues that this variation can be explained through a high verbatim agreement where there is no distraction (i.e. double tradition material) and a low verbatim agreement where there is conflation of other sources i.e. Q. However Garrow is wrong. In fact, some of the passages where Matthew and Luke have the highest agreement are passages like the Beelzebub controversy is inserted in a Marcan passage. Ultimately Garrow's supposition doesn't fit the available data. As an aside, Garrow also takes a holiday in tin-foil hat land by suggesting that Q is, in fact extant and that Q and the didache are one and the same.
    There are several other reasons why we don't think Matthew borrowed from Luke. For a start, Luke's gospel is on the whole longer than Matthew as he adds material in addition to the material he borrows from Matthew. Luke's gospel is 19482 words long in 1151 verses compared to 18345 in 1071 verses in Matthew. There are places where Luke adds material to a change already made by Matthew which makes little sense to have been excised by Matthew such as salvation for all in Luke 3 or Jesus' trial before Herod Antipas. We also get a conflation of readings in Luke which we don't see in Matthew, for example compare Mark 14:65 with Matthew 26:67 and Luke 22:63.



    Peregrinus wrote: »
    As to Q, I accept that it's a hypothesis. I don't think the hypothesis is undermined by the fact that no trace of Q has ever been discovered; the hypothesis is that Q is a now-lost source, and there's nothing implausible in suggesting that no complete or partial manuscript of Q has ever been found. There may not have been that many copies to begin with, and none may have survived. Which means that Q must forever remain a hypothesis, but that doesn't make it an implausible hypothesis.


    The problem is that as you pointed out in your earlier post, we are looking for the most parsimonious explanation. So, in the absence of an extant copy of Q, we have to decide if hypothesising an imaginary document is really a more parsimonious explanation than the more plain reading that one gospel copied the other which copied the other. However, Q as well as being a solution to the synoptic problem is really a neat apologetic tool which allows Christian scholars to solve the synoptic problem and still salvage the traditional authorship of the gospels by having Q as this quotes collection. However, it is an ad-hoc solution and not as simple as the chain of rewrites in the Farrer hypothesis.



    If anyone is interested, Mark Goodacre explains all of this in more detail and better than I could in On Dispensing with Q


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    As for how a supposed saying gospel comes to have a nativity story, I don't think it needs to. If neither Matthew nor Luke draws on the other, the common elements in their nativity story suggest they must be drawing on a common source, but it need not be Q. The identification of Jesus's parents as Mary and Joseph, for example, could have been an established tradition, independently of Q. So, conceivably, could be the tradition locating the birth in Bethlehem. Even if we take this to be a construct, and not a construct by Matthew or Luke, it doesn't have to be a construct by the author of Q. It could have been a construct which had come to be accepted by the time Matthew and Luke were writing, and which was embodied in the oral tradition. No?


    You see, here's the thing about the oral tradition. The idea of an oral tradition is so engrained in the field of biblical studies that even some secular scholars take it as read that there was an oral tradition that the gospel writers rely on. But scholars rarely argue or defend the idea. However, there's a very big problem with the idea of oral tradition being preserved in the gospels, it's complete absence from Paul. None of the gospel content of Jesus' parables, miraculous healings or biographical details are present in Paul. And yet 20 years later four people speaking a different language in different countries somehow happen upon all of these stories and write them down. It makes very little sense.

    In particular, oral tradition gets very unreliable very quickly.

    In cultures with histories of oral tradition, the tradition survives because accuracy is not an important consideration, the central message is more important than the details of the story.

    If we look at modern analogs like Richard Carrier's example of the Roswell incident we can see how a simple story of a man finding some mylar and metal debris in the desert can be so overblown in such a short space of time.
    Also, if we look at histories written around the time of the gospels we see that historians recounting speeches give us the basic jist of the speech and tell us where they are speculating on the content of the speech. They also contain very little direct speech, about 10%. Contrast this with the gospels which contain about half direct speech. The gospels simply don't read as works relying on any kind of oral tradition. This is not a new idea in biblical scholarship but it hasn't really attracted mainstream attention. However, recently it has once again come under fire along with the rest of biblical studies methodology in Chris Keith and Anthony Le Donne's book "Jesus, Criteria and the Demise of Authenticity".
    Finally, in your post above, you cite Bethlehem as one of the possible data points which arises from oral tradition. However, just as easily, it could be a fabrication by Matthew. Matthew's stated reason for having Jesus born in Bethlehem fits with his overall theological purpose but remove that and we have very little reason to believe Jesus born in Bethlehem. Why, because the Mark states that he was from Nazareth. Having Joseph and Mary move from one to the other once or twice makes little sense for a working-class family of the time. So, without any corroborating evidence, oral tradition looks much weaker than fabrication by Matthew.


    In the end, there is a paucity of external evidence when it comes to figuring out what parts of the gospels, if any are actually authentic.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    So, when Luke goes to write his gospel he is copying from an already existing work he isn't writing this from memory. This is where the editorial fatigue comes in. We should remember that the original gospel manuscripts look very different from our bibles today. No verse numbers, no paragraphs, no capitalisation, no punctuation. Just a block of text. So it is easy when copying for your eye to skip down to a different instance of a word you've just copied. This is a well-established phenomenon in textual criticism known as parablepsis, in particular parablepsis occasioned by homoeoteleuton (where a verse or passage ends with the same string of text) or homoeoarcton (where a verse or passage begins with the same string of text). This is seen in Matthew 5:19-20 where the presence of the same string of letters: ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τῶν οὐρανῶν at the end of the first and last sentence of verse 19 and the last sentence of verse 20 has given rise to a haplographic omission in both the Codex Sinaiticus (where most of verse 19 is deleted) and the Codex Bezae (where everything between the end of the first sentence of verse 19 and the end of verse 20 is deleted).
    So, in the case of the centurion's servant. Luke makes a conscious change to doulos at the beginning of the story but lapses back into pais as he continues to copy the text. There are numerous other examples across the NT of just this kind of error.

    This argument strikes me as a bizarre!

    In one case you've got someone who is supposedly utilizing existing work but adapting it to suit their own agenda. On the other you've got an olden days facsimile machine (i.e. a scribe making copies of an existing manuscript for copies sake)

    One would presume that the former had put some thought into what they were going to write (given they were apparently motivated enough to want to communicate their agenda) and was familiar with the existing material they were going to build their agenda upon.

    Whilst one could easily envisage a human copy machine getting it wrong, it's a bit of a stretch to lay this idea on an originator of the species.


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    This argument strikes me as a bizarre!

    In one case you've got someone who is supposedly utilizing existing work but adapting it to suit their own agenda. On the other you've got an olden days facsimile machine (i.e. a scribe making copies of an existing manuscript for copies sake)

    One would presume that the former had put some thought into what they were going to write (given they were apparently motivated enough to want to communicate their agenda) and was familiar with the existing material they were going to build their agenda upon.

    Whilst one could easily envisage a human copy machine getting it wrong, it's a bit of a stretch to lay this idea on an originator of the species.


    It's not really that bizarre. While parablepsis occurs at a much higher frequency among scribes who are just trying to copy the text, parablepsis does happen among the evangelists too. Remember that of the 11025 words in Mark's gospel, 97% of them are replicated in Matthew and 88% in Luke. So, Matthew's job in writing his gospel is, for the most part an exercise in copying. This will inevitably result in copying mistakes but as you said, because he's putting some thought into it, those mistakes won't have the same frequency as someone who is just copying.



    Let's look at Mark 14:65 for example.


    "Then some began to spit at him; they blindfolded him, struck him with
    their fists, and said, “Prophesy!” And the guards took him and beat him."


    Now, let's look at the equivalent passage in Matthew:


    "Then they spit in his face and struck him with their fists. Others slapped him and said, “Prophesy to us, Messiah. Who hit you?”


    Here, Matthew makes a deliberate change to Mark, adding the question "who hit you". Now, in the context of Mark's original passage, this addition makes perfect sense. It strengthens the demand to prophesy. However, by dropping the mention of a blindfold, the entire prophesy reference is rendered meaningless. This is less likely to be a deliberate change (someone isn't going to make their text not make sense on purpose) and more likely a case of parablepsis.



    There are other examples too of similar slips by other authors. Take Luke, for example. He opens his gospel, as Matthew does, in the time of Herod, who died in 4BCE. He then moves on to mention the governorship of Quirnius which began in 6CE, setting up an irreconcilable contradiction. But he later compounds this error by having Jesus' ministry begin at the age of 30 which he places in the 15th year of Tiberius' reign (29CE). So Jesus, according to Luke is born simultaneously sometime before 4BCE, 1BCE and sometime after 6CE. Such a glaring mistake is the likely result of a conflation of sources rather than a deliberate feature.


  • Registered Users Posts: 5,026 ✭✭✭kelly1




  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    kelly1 wrote: »


    What do I make of it? Well, not much, for several reasons.


    1. The death of Herod the Great

    This is a minor point, so let's start there. The article you linked to claims that contrary to mainstream opinion, Herod actually died in 1BCE rather than 4BCE. This claim is based on a broken link to a blog in the article. However, the claim is wrong. The basis of the claim of 1BCE is an attempt to salvage Luke's gospel. The information about Herod's life and death that we have comes from Josephus. So, when Josephus mentions that Herod died near a lunar eclipse, some have claimed that this eclipse was actually on December 29 1BCE since, being close to the end of the year, it would have been more likely to be remembered. Also, it is claimed that none of the previous eclipses would have been visible from Judea.

    The thing is, this is dead wrong. As above, what we know about Herod comes from Josephus. And we have multiple reasons to place Herod's death in 4BCE:

    • Herod died near Passover (JA 17.9.3, JW 2.1.3)
    • Herod died near a lunar eclipse (JA 17.6.4)
    • Herod's reign lasted approximately 37 years (JA 17.8.1, JW 1.33.8)
    • Herod became king in 40BCE (JA 17.8.1, JW 1.33.8)
    • Herod's son Archelaus took over as king following his death (JA 17.8.1)
    • Archelaus' reign lasted 10 years until he was deposed (JA 17.13.2)
    So, from the first point above, we know that Herod died sometime around March. From the second point, we know that there was a lunar eclipse on March 13, 4BCE. We know from the last two points that Archelaus was deposed in 6CE. Josephus dates this to "the thirty-seventh year of Caesar's victory over Antony at Actium". Caesar's victory was in 31BCE, so Archelaus was deposed in 6CE.

    A little background here might be helpful. Herod the Great was a client king of Rome. As long as he paid tribute money to Rome, then he was left to his own devices and Rome generally turned a blind eye to his more distasteful character traits. When Herod died, he (in his will) appointed his son Archelaus to be his successor. Junior was, by all accounts, a bit of a spoiled brat and didn't really see the need to pay tribute to Rome, spending the money instead on a fairly lavish lifestyle. By 6CE, Rome had had enough of this and deposed Archelaus, annexed the province and appointed a Roman governor to oversee the province. This governor was Quirinius. One of Quirinius' first tasks (as documented by Josephus in Jewish Antiquities 17) was to make an account of Archelaus' money and take a census of the new Roman citizens for taxation purposes.

    So, everything we know about the political context of the region at that time tells us that Herod died in 4BCE and Quirinius was appointed in 6CE, an irreconcilable 10 year gap.


    2. On the meaning of protos

    Another central pillar of the argument made in the article is N.T. Wright's claim around the meaning of the word protos in Luke 2:2 which is rendered in English as:

    "(This was the first census that took place while Quirinius was governor of Syria.)"

    Wright's argument is that protos, translated as first above, should actually be translated as before, indicating that the census being spoken about happened before Quirinius became governor of Syria.

    Wright is wrong, however.

    First, protos, for those who don't speak Greek or have a greek lexicon to hand is a word which means first, as in first in time (i.e. he came first in the race), first in rank (i.e. chief, foremost, greatest), or first in number (i.e. the first one). It occurs 101 times in the NT in its various grammatical forms. Out of these only 2 are translated in English translations as before (and this is done for clarity), John 1:15 and John 1:30, which is he existed first or he existed before me. 2 out of 101 is hardly a convincing case.

    Second, the form of the word used in Luke 2:2 is prote which is used 18 times in the NT and is always rendered as first. Also, Wright's argument centres on protos being used to modify the word census (i.e. the census before Quirinius became governor). However, given the prote form of the word and the structure of the sentence, it's much more likely that prote is actually modifying the word ginomai (took place, came to pass). In fact Young's Literal Translation renders the verse:


    "this enrollment first came to pass when Cyrenius was governor of Syria"


    There were universal Roman censuses conducted in 28BCE and 8BCE and 14CE, but none of these help to solve the problem and of course, this wasn't a universal census. This was a taxation census of the newly annexed province. So, the claim ultimately rests on a hypothetical census around 1BCE which nobody in all of recorded history noticed or mentioned. Does that really seem likely?


    So, in conclusion, this attempt to salvage Luke's doubly contradictory dating of Jesus' birth hinges on Herod not dying until 1BCE, which is not true and Luke 2:2 referencing a hypothetical census 7 years before Quirinius (why mention Quirinius at all in that case) which nobody else in Roman history (Josephus, Cassius Dio etc.) bothered to mention. As apologetic wishful thinking goes, that's pretty awful.


  • Registered Users Posts: 5,026 ✭✭✭kelly1


    Thanks for the lengthy response and analysis oldrnwisr. Here's another possible explanation that I came across:

    http://www.comereason.org/roman-census.asp

    The main points are:

    - Herod died 4-2 B.C.
    - Jesus born before Herod's death (between 6 B.C. to 4 B.C)
    - From Luke:
    - Caesar ordered a census
    - Quirinius was governing Syria
    - From Josephus:
    - Caesar ordered a census
    - Cyrenius (Quirinius) was sent to account for Syria and sell the house of Archelaus
    - Cyrenius (Quirinius) "had been consul"
    - We know from other historical records that Herod Archelaus was deposed in 6 A.D., so this census must be about 6 or 7 A.D.
    - Records exist to show that Roman-controlled Egypt had begun a census as early as 10 B.C. and it was repeated every 14 years.
    - Augustus himself notes in his Res Gestae (The Deeds of Augustus) that he ordered three wide-spread censuses of Roman citizens, one in 28B.C., one in 8 B.C. and one in 14 A.D
    - In between there are several other censuses that happened locally across Rome. Luke's account corroborates the idea of multiple censuses for Judea when he writes "This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria."
    - On another occasion, an enrollment of all the people of the empire happened to swear an oath of allegiance to Caesar (from Res Gestae Augustus)
    - Josephus also mentions a time "When all good people gave assurance of their good will to Caesar"
    - Taking all of this together, we have at least three censuses in the area of Judea - one in 8 B.C., one starting around 2 B.C. and one in 6 A.D.
    - In stating that Quirinius controlled the Syrian area, Luke doesn't use the official political title of "Governor" ("legatus"), but the broader term "hegemon" which is a ruling officer or procurator
    - Justin Martyr's Apology supports this view, writing that Quirinius was a "procurator", not a governor of the area of Judea.
    - If Quirinius did hold such a position, then we have no contradiction. The first census was taken during the time of Jesus birth, but Josephus' census would have come later.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    kelly1 wrote: »
    Thanks for the lengthy response and analysis oldrnwisr. Here's another possible explanation that I came across:

    http://www.comereason.org/roman-census.asp

    The main points are:

    - Herod died 4-2 B.C.
    - Jesus born before Herod's death (between 6 B.C. to 4 B.C)
    - From Luke:
    - Caesar ordered a census
    - Quirinius was governing Syria
    - From Josephus:
    - Caesar ordered a census
    - Cyrenius (Quirinius) was sent to account for Syria and sell the house of Archelaus
    - Cyrenius (Quirinius) "had been consul"
    - We know from other historical records that Herod Archelaus was deposed in 6 A.D., so this census must be about 6 or 7 A.D.
    - Records exist to show that Roman-controlled Egypt had begun a census as early as 10 B.C. and it was repeated every 14 years.
    - Augustus himself notes in his Res Gestae (The Deeds of Augustus) that he ordered three wide-spread censuses of Roman citizens, one in 28B.C., one in 8 B.C. and one in 14 A.D
    - In between there are several other censuses that happened locally across Rome. Luke's account corroborates the idea of multiple censuses for Judea when he writes "This was the first census taken while Quirinius was governor of Syria."
    - On another occasion, an enrollment of all the people of the empire happened to swear an oath of allegiance to Caesar (from Res Gestae Augustus)
    - Josephus also mentions a time "When all good people gave assurance of their good will to Caesar"
    - Taking all of this together, we have at least three censuses in the area of Judea - one in 8 B.C., one starting around 2 B.C. and one in 6 A.D.
    - In stating that Quirinius controlled the Syrian area, Luke doesn't use the official political title of "Governor" ("legatus"), but the broader term "hegemon" which is a ruling officer or procurator
    - Justin Martyr's Apology supports this view, writing that Quirinius was a "procurator", not a governor of the area of Judea.
    - If Quirinius did hold such a position, then we have no contradiction. The first census was taken during the time of Jesus birth, but Josephus' census would have come later.


    No, you're still wrong. And here's why.


    The thrust of your new argument is that Herod died as late as 2BCE, that Quirinius was appointed to some kind of non-governor overseer role in Syria around 2BCE and a census was conducted around 2BCE as part of a tribute to Caesar Augustus.


    Each of these components of your argument is wrong individually and collectively.


    First, the idea that Herod died as late as 2BCE is wrong for reasons I stated in my last post. Multiple points of evidence point to Herod's death in 4BCE which means that already even if Jesus was born in 1BCE and Luke's dating is internally consistent, it still conflicts with Luke 1:5 and with Matthew's account.


    Second, we know what Quirinius was doing all of this time and we know that it is not possible for him to have been in any kind of administrative role in Syria at that time. Quirnius was all the way over in Turkey at the time of this alleged census. In 12 BCE Quirinius spent a year in Rome as consul, the highest position in the imperial senate and second only to the emperor. Then after his year he went to Turkey to lead a campaign against the Homonadenses from 12 BCE to 1 BCE including a period as legate of Galatia between 5BCE and 3BCE. Such a high profile official like Quirinius would never have been brought in to another governor's province. Lucius Calpurnius Piso, the governor between 4BCE and 1BCE would never have suffered such a high ranking official to be installed underneath him.


    Finally, there's no possibility of a census being conducted in Syria in 2BCE nor is any mentioned in any Roman records. What we find in Res Gestae is a declaration by the Roman government to declare Augustus father of the country and have this inscribed in the vestibule of his temple (a project already underway). The speculation in your link that this would have required a census is without foundation. Further, as I pointed out in my last post, as a client king Herod and Archelaus after him (until his exile) would have been immune from any census. Client kings were free from any kind of Roman administration provided they paid the specified tribute.



    As I've shown each of your individual points fails, as does your overall argument. The first point alone is enough to indict Luke's gospel. Herod died in 4BCE and so if Jesus was to have been born in the time of Herod (and if Matthew is to be correct) then he had to have been born around 6BCE. So Luke's story about the census precipitating the move to Bethlehem is false. And so is his chronology of Jesus' ministry in Luke 3.



    Also, Luke's story begins with a census because according to Luke everyone had to return to the town where their ancestors came from 1000 years previously. But Matthew already has the family living in in a house in Bethlehem. Which is it?


    Finally, on a side note since you mentioned the censuses of 28BCE, 8BCE and 14CE, I thought it would be nice to see what the US Conference of Catholic Bishops have to say about Luke 2:2


    "Although universal registrations of Roman citizens are attested in 28 B.C., 8 B.C., and A.D. 14 and enrollments in individual provinces of those who are not Roman citizens are also attested, such a universal census of the Roman world under Caesar Augustus is unknown outside the New Testament. Moreover, there are notorious historical problems connected with Luke’s dating the census when Quirinius was governor of Syria, and the various attempts to resolve the difficulties have proved unsuccessful."


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    It's not really that bizarre. While parablepsis occurs at a much higher frequency among scribes who are just trying to copy the text..

    That view (insofar as it applies to books-of-the-bible transmission) conflicts with this:

    The Masoretes developed a system of checks to ensure that every copy was as nearly perfect as humanly possible. To make certain they had not added or left out even a single letter, they counted the number of times each letter of the alphabet occurred in each book. They noted and recorded the middle letter of the entire Old Testament. They recorded the middle letter on each page and the number of letters and words in each column. They examined every copy of the Old Testament and withdrew from circulation all copies in which any error was discovered. These carefully copied Hebrew texts have remained virtually unchanged since about 600 to 700 AD. In 1947 the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls yielded copies from all the major sections of the Old Testament, except Ruth, dating back more than a century before Christ. When compared to these ancient copies, the Masoretic texts were found to be virtually identical.



    I do recall reading the above in times past but merely copied the above passage after a quick search. Is the above just some Christian apologetics propaganda or did the Masoretes indeed operate this way?



    parablepsis does happen among the evangelists too.

    That would beg the question..


    Remember that of the 11025 words in Mark's gospel, 97% of them are replicated in Matthew and 88% in Luke. So, Matthew's job in writing his gospel is, for the most part an exercise in copying. This will inevitably result in copying mistakes but as you said, because he's putting some thought into it, those mistakes won't have the same frequency as someone who is just copying.

    Apparently your average A4 page contains 500 words. So Mark is the equivalent of 22 A4 pages. The idea that someone (who doesn't even have to be operating close to the standard of our Masorete) couldn't proof-compare 22 pages A4 pages worth of text and not spot glaring mistakes is fairly implausible. For this idea to work, you've got to assign a care & attention level down at bottom drawer. You have to suppose that the writers didn't really give a fig about what they were copying.

    Let me ask you a question. If you had the task of generating 22 pages of copy:

    -consisting of significant copying from an existing text
    -with important-to-you additions and subtractions
    -to which you attached some kind of importance..

    .. do you think you'd manage to avoid errors and omissions of a very glaring kind. I know I'd be capable of it. I'm wondering about this sense of "inevitability of error". Like, it's just proof reading - it's not complicated or reliant on modern technology.


    Let's look at Mark 14:65 for example.


    "Then some began to spit at him; they blindfolded him, struck him with their fists, and said, “Prophesy!” And the guards took him and beat him."

    Now, let's look at the equivalent passage in Matthew:


    "Then they spit in his face and struck him with their fists. Others slapped him and said, “Prophesy to us, Messiah. Who hit you?”


    Here, Matthew makes a deliberate change to Mark, adding the question "who hit you". Now, in the context of Mark's original passage, this addition makes perfect sense. It strengthens the demand to prophesy. However, by dropping the mention of a blindfold, the entire prophesy reference is rendered meaningless. This is less likely to be a deliberate change (someone isn't going to make their text not make sense on purpose) and more likely a case of parablepsis.

    You seem to be saying that:

    - Matthew approaches this sentence and adds "who hit you" in a deliberate and perfectly sensical attempt to strengthen the prophesy demand contained therein (which grants, for the sake of argument, your assessment of his motivations)

    - He then carelessly makes a mistake in the mere copying of the sentence - a sentence which is the specific focus of his attention and concern - dropping "blindfold" and ruining his 'strengthening attempt' in the process.


    Are you working from the supposition that the authors are blithering fools?


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Second, we know what Quirinius was doing all of this time and we know that it is not possible for him to have been in any kind of administrative role in Syria at that time. Quirnius was all the way over in Turkey at the time of this alleged census. In 12 BCE Quirinius spent a year in Rome as consul, the highest position in the imperial senate and second only to the emperor. Then after his year he went to Turkey to lead a campaign against the Homonadenses from 12 BCE to 1 BCE including a period as legate of Galatia between 5BCE and 3BCE. Such a high profile official like Quirinius would never have been brought in to another governor's province. Lucius Calpurnius Piso, the governor between 4BCE and 1BCE would never have suffered such a high ranking official to be installed underneath him.

    Quick question. How might parablepsis have influenced this data?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    That view (insofar as it applies to books-of-the-bible transmission) conflicts with this:

    The Masoretes developed a system of checks to ensure that every copy was as nearly perfect as humanly possible. To make certain they had not added or left out even a single letter, they counted the number of times each letter of the alphabet occurred in each book. They noted and recorded the middle letter of the entire Old Testament. They recorded the middle letter on each page and the number of letters and words in each column. They examined every copy of the Old Testament and withdrew from circulation all copies in which any error was discovered. These carefully copied Hebrew texts have remained virtually unchanged since about 600 to 700 AD. In 1947 the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls yielded copies from all the major sections of the Old Testament, except Ruth, dating back more than a century before Christ. When compared to these ancient copies, the Masoretic texts were found to be virtually identical.



    I do recall reading the above in times past but merely copied the above passage after a quick search. Is the above just some Christian apologetics propaganda or did the Masoretes indeed operate this way?

    I'm not exactly sure what point you're trying to make here but it's a bad one. What do the Masoretes have to do with anything? The Masoretes were a group of Jewish scribe-scholars who came together in the 6th century CE to preserve the Hebrew bible. So, we're talking about a concerted effort by a coherent group of scribes to preserve the text of another religion in another language centuries after the time we're talking about. And this is relevant how exactly? You're making an awful lot of unsupportable assumptions here.

    That would beg the question..

    No, not really. Begging the question, in the logical fallacy sense, requires assuming your conclusion. But I haven't assumed that conclusion, I have demonstrated it with examples. Since we're here, how about another example. In Mark 6:14-29, Mark describes the death of John the Baptist at the hands of Herod Antipas. Mark refers to Herod four times (v. 22, 25, 26, 27). However, Herod Antipas wasn't a king, merely a tetrarch as Josephus Points out in Antiquities 17. When Matthew comes to write his gospel, he corrects Mark by replacing the word king with tetrarch. However, in the middle of the story, Matthew forgets to correct Mark and refers to Herod as king in 14:9 matching Mark 6:26. This is a clear example of parablepsis.



    Apparently your average A4 page contains 500 words. So Mark is the equivalent of 22 A4 pages. The idea that someone (who doesn't even have to be operating close to the standard of our Masorete) couldn't proof-compare 22 pages A4 pages worth of text and not spot glaring mistakes is fairly implausible. For this idea to work, you've got to assign a care & attention level down at bottom drawer. You have to suppose that the writers didn't really give a fig about what they were copying.

    Let me ask you a question. If you had the task of generating 22 pages of copy:

    -consisting of significant copying from an existing text
    -with important-to-you additions and subtractions
    -to which you attached some kind of importance..

    .. do you think you'd manage to avoid errors and omissions of a very glaring kind. I know I'd be capable of it. I'm wondering about this sense of "inevitability of error". Like, it's just proof reading - it's not complicated or reliant on modern technology.

    Again, you're making an unsupportable assumption. You're assuming that proof-reading would have been a consideration for the evangelists or that factual accuracy was important to them. But given the evidence available this doesn't seem to have been the case. Take the exorcism story at the beginning of Mark chapter 5. Mark sets the story in the land of the Gerasenes. This creates a major problem since Gerasa was about 30km from the Sea of Galilee, rendering the story nonsensical. Matthew realises this and, in fairness, does his best to smooth over the crack in Mark's story by changing Gerasenes to Gadarenes and so reducing the error from 30km to about 5km. So, still nonsense but not quite as bad. However, at no point does Matthew attempt to discuss Mark's error. This stands in marked contrast to actual historical accounts of the time.

    Take Suetonius' "Life of Caligula" as an example. In it, Suetonius acknowledges and discusses the uncertainty around Caligula's place of birth:


    "Contradicting sources have made the place of his birth uncertain. Gnaeus Lentulus Gaetulicus writes that he was born at Tibur, whereas Pliny [the Elder] says that he was born among the Treveri, in a village named Ambitarvium, above the confluence of the Rhine and the Moselle. Pliny further adds as evidence alters located there, bearing the inscription: ‘For the delivery of Agrippina.’ Verses that were in circulation shortly after he became emperor state that he was born in the winter-quarters of the legions: ‘Born in camp and weaned amidst the arms of his country, he was already a sign of future imperium.’ I myself have found it published in the acta diurna that he was born at Antium. Pliny has discredited Gaetulicus, on the grounds that he falsified his account through flattery, so that he could exalt the praises of a young and vainglorious prince who was even from a city sacred to Hercules; and that he made this lie with greater confidence, since there had actually been a son born to Germanicus at Tiber, nearly a year earlier, who was also named Gaius Caesar (concerning whose lovable innocence and premature death I have already spoken about above). Accurate chronology disproves Pliny."

    Here we can see the differing sources mentioned as well as a discussion of what evidence supports each conflicting source. There's nothing like that in the gospels. This is because factual accuracy wasn't an important consideration for the evangelists, these are theological documents, not historical ones.






    You seem to be saying that:

    - Matthew approaches this sentence and adds "who hit you" in a deliberate and perfectly sensical attempt to strengthen the prophesy demand contained therein (which grants, for the sake of argument, your assessment of his motivations)

    - He then carelessly makes a mistake in the mere copying of the sentence - a sentence which is the specific focus of his attention and concern - dropping "blindfold" and ruining his 'strengthening attempt' in the process.


    Are you working from the supposition that the authors are blithering fools?


    No, not blithering fools exactly. But as I've noted in a previous post, how the original gospel manuscripts looked is nothing like the text we're reading and writing right now. It was just a solid block of text, no punctuation, spacing, paragraphs, line breaks, verse numbers, chapter dividers, nothing.



    Like this:


    P46.jpg


    Now, we know Matthew copies almost all of Mark's gospel into his own to act as the backbone of his story. So, you can see from above that copying all of that text letter by letter while figuring out which bits needed changing isn't exactly an easy task. And it's made more complicated when Matthew's comprehension of his source material isn't exactly brilliant to begin with. He misinterprets Micah 5:2 changing Bethlehem from a tribe to a town, he misquotes Hosea 11:1 by truncating the passage and taking it out of context. He does the same a verse later with Jeremiah 31:15. He misreads Zechariah 9:9, misunderstanding a Hebrew parallelism so that Jesus rides into Jerusalem on a donkey and its colt. In 27:9, he inserts another messianic prophecy which he quotes from Jeremiah but actually comes from Zechariah 11:12-13.

    And it's not even reading older texts where Matthew makes mistakes. In his genealogy Matthew states, that there were 14 generations from Abraham to David, 14 from David to the Babylonian exile and 14 from the exile to Jesus or 42 generations total. But his genealogy only contains 41 names.

    Again and again we see trivial mistakes from Matthew so he definitely has form in this area.

    In fact, all of the evangelists do.

    Mark contains a litany of errors about Palestinian geography, Jewish customs, Jewish legal procedures etc.

    Luke describes Annas and Caiaphas as both being high priest, which was not true, Caiaphas alone was high priest. Luke's story opens with Joseph and Mary in Nazareth but then having to go to Bethlehem because of Quirinius' census, but Quirinius' census was of Judea so, being from Galilee, they would have been outside the scope of the census in the first place. Luke describes Lysanias of Abilene being a tetrarch in 29CE, despite the fact that he died in 33BCE.

    Even John isn't immune to such basic errors. In 1:19, John opens his story in Jerusalem. But later in verse 28 he says that John the Baptist was baptising in Bethany "on the far side of the Jordan". But Bethany is on the western side of the Jordan, the same side as Jerusalem.

    John, like Matthew also forgets what he's already written. In 2:11, John mentions that this was the first sign that Jesus performed. He then spends the next two and a half chapters documenting other feats of Jesus before declaring in 4:54 that this was the second sign Jesus performed.

    Also, like Matthew, John suffers from a loss of historical perspective, failing to realise that the time he's writing about is different from the time he's living in. So just as in Matthew we get the unlikely "render unto Caesar" story" in John we get the expulsion of Christians from the synagogues, during the lifetime of Jesus, an anachronism that has been discussed by scholars for years with no insight forthcoming.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Quick question. How might parablepsis have influenced this data?


    Jackie-Chan-WTF.jpg


  • Registered Users Posts: 5,026 ✭✭✭kelly1


    Again oldrnwisr, than for taking the time to reply.

    This is the best argument I've come across and it debunks the arguments I linked to earlier:

    http://www.truthinmydays.com/is-luke-wrong-about-the-date-of-jesus-birth-a-case-study-in-how-to-do-serious-evangelical-apologetics-part-1/

    John Thors basically casts serious doubt on the accuracy of Josephus' date for Herod's death of 4BC and argues that 1BC is correct.

    I'll have to read it again to get a better handle on it.


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    I'm not exactly sure what point you're trying to make here but it's a bad one. What do the Masoretes have to do with anything? The Masoretes were a group of Jewish scribe-scholars who came together in the 6th century CE to preserve the Hebrew bible. So, we're talking about a concerted effort by a coherent group of scribes to preserve the text of another religion in another language centuries after the time we're talking about. And this is relevant how exactly? You're making an awful lot of unsupportable assumptions here.

    The aim was to deal with the inference that errors and mistakes are an inevitability. Clearly they weren't then and aren't now (in our own copying and transmission). Accurate copying isn't difficult - and certainly not so in the case of wholesale changes.

    Errors and mistakes it can be. Something else it can be too. And in the example I dealt with in my last post, it struck as bizarre that error and mistake could be at work in a sentence being deliberately reconstructed so as to strengthen it.


    No, not really. Begging the question, in the logical fallacy sense, requires assuming your conclusion. But I haven't assumed that conclusion, I have demonstrated it with examples.

    The assumption in the examples is error of copying - that nothing else could be going on. And in the example I was dealing with, that assumption rests on the author being an imbecile: aiming to saw the limb off a tree ... whilst placing the saw betwixt himself and trunk.

    Since we're here, how about another example. In Mark 6:14-29, Mark describes the death of John the Baptist at the hands of Herod Antipas. Mark refers to Herod four times (v. 22, 25, 26, 27). However, Herod Antipas wasn't a king, merely a tetrarch as Josephus Points out in Antiquities 17. When Matthew comes to write his gospel, he corrects Mark by replacing the word king with tetrarch. However, in the middle of the story, Matthew forgets to correct Mark and refers to Herod as king in 14:9 matching Mark 6:26. This is a clear example of parablepsis.

    Isn't this another example off begging the question. You weave a narrative around an assumption which might well have other explanations. Let's take this one above.

    Can we suppose Mark has no love of Herod? Might we also suppose that the author had knowledge of the circumstances whereby Herod became tetrarch instead of king? Can we suppose Herod the spurned king railed at this state of affairs during his tetrachy? Can we suppose folk joked about the wannabe "King" Herod behind his back? You bet.

    King Herod. Mocking perhaps? Mark (or anyone else for that matter) needn't be assumed to be constructing a history book here. Yet you appear to make that assumption.

    Again, you're making an unsupportable assumption. You're assuming that proof-reading would have been a consideration for the evangelists or that factual accuracy was important to them. But given the evidence available this doesn't seem to have been the case.

    On balance, we might take someone troubled enough to want to strengthen a point to be concerned enough not to saw themselves out of a tree. Innocent until proven guilty .. as it were.


    Take the exorcism story at the beginning of Mark chapter 5. Mark sets the story in the land of the Gerasenes. This creates a major problem since Gerasa was about 30km from the Sea of Galilee, rendering the story nonsensical. Matthew realises this and, in fairness, does his best to smooth over the crack in Mark's story by changing Gerasenes to Gadarenes and so reducing the error from 30km to about 5km. So, still nonsense but not quite as bad. However, at no point does Matthew attempt to discuss Mark's error. This stands in marked contrast to actual historical accounts of the time.

    "Some manuscripts Gadarenes; other manuscripts Gergesenes"

    I'm assuming some manuscripts do indeed use Gaderenes and it's not a combination of Mark-the-geographical-imbecile and Matthew-the-polyfilla-man per se?


    Here we can see the differing sources mentioned as well as a discussion of what evidence supports each conflicting source. There's nothing like that in the gospels. This is because factual accuracy wasn't an important consideration for the evangelists, these are theological documents, not historical ones.

    Romans is a theological document - it dealing in fine detail with the mechanism of God (as it were). The gospels aren't as rigidly focused. "You brood of vipers" isn't a theological statement, for example. There is space for mockery within.

    No, not blithering fools exactly. But as I've noted in a previous post, how the original gospel manuscripts looked is nothing like the text we're reading and writing right now. It was just a solid block of text, no punctuation, spacing, paragraphs, line breaks, verse numbers, chapter dividers, nothing.

    Lending itself supremely to simple proof checking tests (eg the spot checks used by the Masoretes). Presumably folk in those days were used to reading those texts and they didn't represent the hurdle they might us.



    Now, we know Matthew copies almost all of Mark's gospel into his own to act as the backbone of his story. So, you can see from above that copying all of that text letter by letter while figuring out which bits needed changing isn't exactly an easy task.

    Ithinkyourgraspingatstraws .. and if you were copying that statement, you would copy it word for word rather than letter by letter.

    It's not complicated and they were used to it. What about Chinese or Japanese? Are we to suppose they can't make accurate copies just because they don't use our punctuation?

    I speak Dutch. The Dutch the verb at the end of the sentence put. That takes a bit of getting used to but in no time you pick it up. Ditto, presumably, sentences without full stops.

    The first base of a written language is that folk can read it. And these were a highly advanced folk (I know - I, an engineer, have seen what they built) and we can presume they were easily able to read their own writing. And if they can easily read their own writing then they can accurately copy it (once applying the modicum of care that we would apply).

    To suppose the text difficult because you find it difficult says more about you than them. The safe assumption is that copying for them was no more difficult that copying is for us. And that they were no more in the habit of sawing the branch from underneath them than we are.


    I've to make the dinner so will sign off for now. Cheers.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,857 ✭✭✭TheQuietFella


    TomSweeney wrote: »
    I did, and it was talking about the INN being full ?

    - I guess cos it was Christmas yeah ? :P sorry couldn't resist the Ali G joke there ...


    edit - but seriously, some say the INN some stay the stable ... maybe different gospels ..

    Just to clarify that this line attributed to Ali G 'is not' one of his but it was originally used by Dandy Nichols in the 70's comedy called 'In Sickness & In Health'

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=b_6PxrAxd6k


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,573 ✭✭✭Nick Park


    TomSweeney wrote: »
    Hi,
    How accurate is the whole story of Jesus in the stable ?
    Wasn't he born in an INN ? or was it actually in the stable of the INN?

    If you want to ask a question about Christianity on boards.ie then it's probably better to post it on the Atheism & Agnosticism forum. That way you can get the usual tirades about it all being a load of rubbish without the occasional Christian interruptions.

    Merry Christmas to you.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    Nick Park wrote: »
    If you want to ask a question about Christianity on boards.ie then it's probably better to post it on the Atheism & Agnosticism forum. That way you can get the usual tirades about it all being a load of rubbish without the occasional Christian interruptions.

    Merry Christmas to you.

    So far the conversation seems to be proceeding quite well here, without a tirade in sight. As to it being rubbish, though....


  • Registered Users Posts: 23,350 ✭✭✭✭ted1


    Yester wrote: »
    Luke 2:4-7 says, “Joseph also went up from Galilee, out of the city of Nazareth, into Judea, to the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, because he was of the house and lineage of David…And she brought forth her firstborn Son, and wrapped Him in swaddling cloths, and laid Him in a manger, because there was no room for them in the inn.”

    Although here is an interesting article that suggests that depending on the interpretation of the word
    kataluma he may indeed have been born in the inn.

    https://www.psephizo.com/biblical-studies/jesus-was-not-born-in-a-stable/

    Edit: You may already have heard of this, lol.
    Like was born after Jesus, how would he know the accuracy of the second or third hand info he got


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    ted1 wrote: »
    Like was born after Jesus, how would he know the accuracy of the second or third hand info he got

    Presumably by the same process you use to establish the accuracy of the third hand information you have that Luke was born after Jesus. You evaluate the source and make a personal decision that the source is accurate.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,008 ✭✭✭1123heavy


    All this talk about Matthew and Luke. Yes we are aware of the contradictions in them, however should this really be the biggest point of focus?

    In my opinion - no. Our focus as people seeking the truth should be on the gospel of John. Reason being is it's the gospel of John that (mostly) gives indications to the divinity of Christ. If you remove the gospel of John, arguing for the divinity of Christ suddenly becomes a whole lot more difficult.

    I have a hold up over the divinity of Christ and I think it is more of a pressing issue than what year Herod died.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,165 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    1123heavy wrote: »
    All this talk about Matthew and Luke. Yes we are aware of the contradictions in them, however should this really be the biggest point of focus?

    In my opinion - no. Our focus as people seeking the truth should be on the gospel of John. Reason being is it's the gospel of John that (mostly) gives indications to the divinity of Christ. If you remove the gospel of John, arguing for the divinity of Christ suddenly becomes a whole lot more difficult.

    I have a hold up over the divinity of Christ and I think it is more of a pressing issue than what year Herod died.
    Different kind of argument, I think. The year when Herod died or whether Jesus was born in Bethlehem or not are historical questions and it's meaningful to think that they have answers which can be assessed using the disciplines and criteria employed by historians. But "Jesus is the Son of God" is a theological claim, not a a historical one.

    We could reasonably ask whether the early Christian community believed that Jesus was the Son of God, or when it came to have this belief, or even how it came to have this belief. These are historical questions. But whether the belief is true, or correct, or valid, or whatever term you want to use - not so much.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,043 ✭✭✭martinedwards


    no room in the Inn so when he was born he was wrapped in cloths and laid in a manger.

    no mention of a stable either.

    I have heard it suggested that as there were mangers on the street..... (like the comedy water troughs outside all the best wild west saloons) ...... that Mary could have given birth out in the open on the street.

    The Magi visited the HOUSE so that could have been significantly later.


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 26,165 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Mangers are for feed, not water, and you generally don't find mangers in the street, because who's going to fill them up with free feed? The manger could be in a stable/cowshed/animal pen/whatever, or it could just be in a field, but it would be an enclosed pasture, not a public space. Luke doesn't say which of these is the case, but the popular artistic imagination has generally supplied a stable or similar. Which makes a certain kind of sense; if you had to give birth in these circumstances, you'd definitelyp prefer the manger in a stable over the manger in a filed.

    Luke doesn't mention the three wise men or the house; after the adoration by the shepherds (at which point Jesus is still in a manger) he skips straight to the cirucumcision, 8 days later, and then to the purification at the Temple (in Jerusalem, obviously, not in Bethlehem). Joseph and Mary then proceed, with Jesus, from Jerusalem to Nazareth.

    The three wise men are from Matthew, but he doesn't mention the manger. Matthew actually skips straight over the birth itself; in his tellling Joseph decides not to divorce Mary and then "after Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of Herod the king" three wise men turn up in Jerusalem looking for him. So the birth itself happens offstage, so to speak, and we are told virtually nothing about it. When the three wise men find Jesus he is in a house, but there is no suggestion that this represents a change of circumstances; as far as Matthew's telling is concerned Jesus may have been born in the house.


Advertisement