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The Historical Jesus

  • 12-05-2015 11:45am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭


    I notice that on many different forums there's a lot of 'The Bible is just a work of fiction' thrown about. I have however, looked into work other than that of Christians regarding Jesus of Nazareth and wondered did anyone have anything that they found that also supported this.

    Here's one of the more 'lightweight' moments in my search



«1

Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 29,095 ✭✭✭✭looksee


    I don't see any contradiction between a person being an atheist and accepting that Jesus was a person who lived at the time he is recorded as having lived?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭Greaney


    Either do I. :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 28,789 ✭✭✭✭ScumLord


    I would accept that Jesus more than likely existed, I don't accept that the bible is an accurate account of his life and teachings, I think it was seriously embellished over the centuries.. The old testament is clearly a collection of stories and principles taken from a range of civilisations, probably going right back to the dawn of civilization nearly 12,000 years ago. It has historical significance and some historical truths, but isn't reliable in it's own right.


  • Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 9,768 Mod ✭✭✭✭Manach


    I'd tentatively agree with Scumlord in part. What can be said, from my experience of the Classics era in general, is that a historical person Jesus existed and was killed in a rather gruesome manner by the Roman authorities and this lead to a religious movement based on his teachings written down by mostly primary source at some point after that event and honed by the Church fathers. The supernatural elements are a manner of belief for adherents like myself and have been subject to "discussion" since.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    No problem here that he existed , however to believe he was the actual son of the creator of the universe one would have to accept that said creator picked a local religion (Judaism) to use as a vehicle which seems odd to say the least.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 28,789 ✭✭✭✭ScumLord


    silverharp wrote: »
    No problem here that he existed , however to believe he was the actual son of the creator of the universe one would have to accept that said creator picked a local religion (Judaism) to use as a vehicle which seems odd to say the least.
    Well to be fair to Jesus he said we are all the children of god. This is part of the embellishment I was on about. I'd wonder did Jesus ever say he was the son of God and instead people just ran with the idea he was saying he was god rather than take on board that all people are equal in the eyes of god.

    There seems to be a contradiction where Jesus was humble enough to wash peoples feet and then go on to claim he's god and everyone should worship him. I think the apostles made him out to be a god after the fact to ensure his message was listened too. Miracles seem like the shortcut to making people believe you and Christians used "magic" as a propaganda tool right up until recent times, even the Irish monks apparently used magic to convert the British.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,150 ✭✭✭homer911


    silverharp wrote: »
    No problem here that he existed , however to believe he was the actual son of the creator of the universe one would have to accept that said creator picked a local religion (Judaism) to use as a vehicle which seems odd to say the least.

    According to this link, there are 353 prophecies about Jesus in the Old Testament and all were fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ

    www.accordingtothescriptures.org/prophecy/353prophecies.html

    A coincidence?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 28,789 ✭✭✭✭ScumLord


    homer911 wrote: »
    According to this link, there are 353 prophecies about Jesus in the Old Testament and all were fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ

    www.accordingtothescriptures.org/prophecy/353prophecies.html

    A coincidence?
    Reliable?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    homer911 wrote: »
    According to this link, there are 353 prophecies about Jesus in the Old Testament and all were fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ

    www.accordingtothescriptures.org/prophecy/353prophecies.html

    A coincidence?

    I can't say I have read many of them but the nt writers did get themselves in knots a couple of times trying to make the story fit the ot text , so I don't rate it as evidence.
    Also what's the point of prophesies if the intended people don't actually think Jesus was the real deal?

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,150 ✭✭✭homer911


    I suppose you believe the holocaust didn't happen?


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 4,882 ✭✭✭Saipanne


    homer911 wrote: »
    I suppose you believe the holocaust didn't happen?

    Moronic comment. Possibly the most stupid occurrence in human thought.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    homer911 wrote: »
    I suppose you believe the holocaust didn't happen?

    wow! thats a dreadful thing to say. I know the difference between history and the start of a legend. Oddly alot of holocaust deniers tend to be Christian or Muslim, they deny a mountain of evidence from different sources and types for the Holocaust yet believe a religion on basically no external evidence.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭Greaney


    .... Um, so just to get back on topic, I was hoping for references. I attended a talk by Richard Bauckam a few years ago. He was professor of History in St. Andrews and wrote the book, Jesus and the Eyewitnesses.



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    I think the mainstream historical consensus is that, yes, Jesus of Nazareth was a historical figure.

    Was he the son of God? That's a theological question, not a historical one. I think most academic historians would say that the discipline of history can give you little help in answering that question, one way or the other. The quest for the historical Jesus is a fascinating quest, but it's the quest for the historical Jesus. Don't expect too much of it.

    How accurate are the gospels, historically speaking? Opinions vary, but there probably isn't a one word answer. Some details are probably more historically reliable that others. For example, I think most historians would accept that Jesus did have a mother called Mary and a brother called James, but they would be slower to accept that he was born in Bethlehem.

    Scumlord suggests that the Bible "was seriously embellished over the centuries". That may be true for some of the Old Testament texts but, as regards texts dealing with Jesus, not so much. The four gospels were all written, in pretty much the form that we now have them, well within a century of the death of Jesus. At least three of the four were written within the lifetimes of people who knew Jesus. We can interrogate their reliability as historical texts, but not really on the grounds that they were "seriously embellished over the centuries". Ironically, that claim would itself be a "serious embellishment".

    As for the OT prophecies that fit Jesus, well, hmm. There's a good number of OT prophecies which can be made to fit Jesus if you want them to, but if you don't want them to - e.g. if you are Jewish - then they don't fit Jesus. So I think the exercise of matching prophecies to Jesus often tells us more about the faith of the person engaging in the exercise than it does about the historical Jesus.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    We touched upon this on another thread recently. Broadly, I'd have to agree with Peregrinus and Manach above.

    Pardon me while I lie down for a moment.

    From what I've read, most scholars do agree that there was a historical Jesus. The issue, for most, is how much the historical Yeshua is the Jesus of Nazareth as presented in the NT. From my understanding of the question objections to the existence of Yeshua point to the paucity of contemporary historical references, and the lack of any archaeological evidence. As Peregrinus rightly observes, this is a fascinating question, but don't expect too much.

    I'm not sure what archaeological evidence could be uncovered that would prove the existence of Jesus; but that does not mean that such evidence could not be found. I'd imagine it's pretty safe to assume that the Holy Land has been searched for centuries for signs of the Carpenter, with very little to show for it. That being said, there have been some tantalizing finds, such as the Pilate stone and the James ossuary (if they are indeed authentic), both of which are modern finds. So, who knows what the future might uncover.

    Concerning contemporary historical references, as far as I know there are none. It seems that the earliest written references we have to Jesus date from the latter half of the first century, which would make them at least 20-30 years after his death. To my mind, these certainly prove the existence of Christianity at this time, but I don't know how useful they can be for shedding light on the historical Yeshua.

    The question can be asked, why should we expect contemporary references to Jesus? He was, after all, an itinerant preacher in a not-very-important Roman province. The difficulty that some see here is that he wasn't just another itinerant preacher. We cannot possibly verify such miracles as walking on water or feeding the multitude, but we might reasonably expect some reference to the events of Holy Week from a source other than Scripture. After all, it is within these seven days that he 1) was welcomed into Jerusalem as a king, 2) came into increasing conflict with the religious authorities, culminating in the incident with the Moneylenders, 3) was arrested and given three trials (the Sanhedrin, Pilate, and Herod Agrippa), 4) was passed over for pardon in favour of an insurrectionist, at the insistence of the crowd 5) was crucified, which coincided with an earthquake and the resurrection of the dead, and 6) in turn resurrected himself. Apart from the last point, all the above were, we are told, witnessed by many. Yet there is no contemporary 'Wow, did you hear what happened in Jerusalem last Passover?' correspondence. Of course, we must keep in mind that absence of evidence is not evidence of absence; but it does seem strange that these events would go completely unremarked by any contemporary writers or commentators.

    Sorry for the long post. I'm not a holocaust denier, by the way (lets get that out of the way, shall we?).

    TL:DR; Yes, quite probably there was a guy called Yeshua who we now know as Jesus of Nazareth, but we'll never know for sure.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Well, we don't agree on everything, Paul. As for the events of Holy Week, leaving aside the resurrection, if we accept - and I think most do - that the early Christian community in Jerusalem was a historical reality, then the parsimonious explanation for the existence and beliefs of that community is that Jesus of Nazareth really was put to death in Jerusalem, by the Roman, with the connivance or support of the Temple authorities. While we don't have any contemporary accounts of that - as in, written at the time of the supposed events - we have several apparently independent accounts which were written at a time when many eye-witnesses to the supposed events would still be alive, and within the same time-frame and in the same city we have a community which predates those writings, but apparently shares the belief that the events occurred.

    It requires an awful lot of completely unevidenced and fairly improbable assumptions to explain how this could be if, in fact, none of the events ever occurred. Many members of the Christian community would know that the alleged events had not occurred. More to the point, many opponents of the Christian community would know that, too. And yet we have no record, or memory, of anyone challenging the Christians over this. So, we have several first-generation accounts of these events and of the community that stemmed from them, and we have no first-generation (or later) accounts of anyone denying or disputing these events. If you think the original Holy
    Week would have been a significant enough phenomenon to be the subject of a surviving contemporary record, the early Christian community and its struggles with the authorities would have been a much more significant phenomenon, and if there was any denial of the Holy Week events, you'd expect that to be recorded too, wouldn't you?

    In fact I think your surprise at the lack of contemporary comment on the Holy Week events is misplaced. Passover happened every year, and trouble and strife at Passover time was not unusual, but so far as I know we have no contemporary accounts of any particular Passover from this time. There were no newspapers or chronicles, if Pilate or other Roman authorities were making reports to Rome none of them have survived, any record that might have existed in the Temple archives was lost when the Temple was sacked and burned. If an individual wrote a private letter mentioning the events it would be a freak if it survived; the fact that none has survived is not very telling.

    I think mainstream historical opinion suggests that, more probably than not, Jesus of Nazareth was not only a historical figure but he was put to death by the Romans at Jerusalem some time the fourth decade of the common era, and this event forms the foundation of the accounts of the passion in the four gospels. There is nothing remotely supernatural, or even surprising, about this claim, and crucifixions are known to have been a commonplace event in Palestine at the time; very few (if any?) of them are the subject of any surviving contemporary documentation. What would be much more surprising is if the Christian movement became a significant problem for the Roman and/or Jewish authorities at a time when everybody knew that its foundational story was completely bogus and yet we have no record or memory of anybody every mentioning the fact.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    below is one of the funny examples of where a NT writer was desperately looking back though the OT when putting together the Gospels. mistranslating an OT passage into thinking that someone would ride 2 animals when it was only one and then inserting this invented event into the NT


    THE PROPHESIED COMING OF ZION'S KING - Zechariah 9:9 (NIV)
    Rejoice greatly, O Daughter of Zion! Shout, Daughter of Jerusalem! See, your king comes to you, righteous and having salvation, gentle and riding on a donkey, on a colt, the foal of a donkey.
    [NOTE: This actually meant one animal.]



    JESUS RIDES TWO ANIMALS AT ONCE! - Matthew 21:7
    They brought the donkey and the colt, placed their cloaks on them, and Jesus sat on them.
    [NOTE: This impossible story resulted from a mistranslation of Zechariah 9:9.]

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Moderators Posts: 51,922 ✭✭✭✭Delirium


    Saipanne wrote: »
    Moronic comment. Possibly the most stupid occurrence in human thought.

    MOD NOTE

    Please try keep to the topic. This type of posting adds nothing to the discussion.

    Thanks for your attention.

    If you can read this, you're too close!



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,150 ✭✭✭homer911


    silverharp wrote: »
    wow! thats a dreadful thing to say. I know the difference between history and the start of a legend. Oddly alot of holocaust deniers tend to be Christian or Muslim, they deny a mountain of evidence from different sources and types for the Holocaust yet believe a religion on basically no external evidence.

    Well I'm very glad that you dont deny the Holocaust, but the only difference "between history and the start of a legend" is 2000 years and the absence of physical and photographic evidence. If the Holocaust had happened 2000 years ago and all that remained in terms of evidence was the equivalent evidence of Jesus, would you believe it then?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    silverharp wrote: »
    below is one of the funny examples of where a NT writer was desperately looking back though the OT when putting together the Gospels. mistranslating an OT passage into thinking that someone would ride 2 animals when it was only one and then inserting this invented event into the NT . . .

    Mmm. I think you're taking a historically anachronistic biblical literalist approach here, silverharp.

    Biblical literalism is a modern phenomenon; neither Matthew nor his audience read scripture this way, or could imagine doing so.

    Remember, Matthew is reworking a story which he has taken from Mark. In Mark's version, there's only one animal, a colt. (Mark doesn't even specify that it's the colt of a donkey; it could be a pony or a horse or a mule.) And Mark makes no explicit reference to the Zechariah story; either he doesn't spot the parallel with Zech or (more likely) the Zech story is so well known both to to him and to his readers that he feels no need to make the point. (The scholars tell us that Mark is writing for Jewish Christians.)

    But that's not Matthew's way. Matthew takes lots of stories from Mark, and he embellishes them all. He's not intending to fool anybody; he is writing for a readership that is already familiar with the Gospel of Mark. He embellishes his stories for various reasons, e.g. to underline theological points, or to call attention to details that might otherwise be thought insignificant. His readership is less well-versed in Judaism, so some of his embellishments point out things which non-Jews might not otherwise appreciate.

    That's what's going on here. Matthew explicitly quotes the passage from Zechariah, which at least some of his readers will not be familiar with. He quotes it in Greek, not in Hebrew, and the Greek text does indeed suggest two animals, so he has Jesus riding on two animals. He's well aware of the physical impossiblity, or least incongruity, of this. It's not likely that he expects his readership to picture Jesus with one foot on each animal like a circus rider. Perhaps he expects them to imagine Jesus riding first one animal, then the other. Or perhaps Jesus is on one animal, and his bags on the other. (He has, after all, come from Galilee to stay in Jerusalem; he must have brought a change of undies and a toothbrush.) Or perhaps he doesn't particularly care how they picture the event, as long as they get the parallel with the Zech story.

    And, for the record, if the "two animals" version is a mistranslation of the Zech text, it's not Matthew's mistranslation. Matthew quotes the Septuagint, the widely-used Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures. He does this consistently whenever he quotes the Hebrew scriptures (which is quite a lot). It wasn't a translation he made himself.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    homer911 wrote: »
    Well I'm very glad that you dont deny the Holocaust, but the only difference "between history and the start of a legend" is 2000 years and the absence of physical and photographic evidence. If the Holocaust had happened 2000 years ago and all that remained in terms of evidence was the equivalent evidence of Jesus, would you believe it then?

    Extraordinary claims and all that. Well no i wouldn't believe that several million civilians could be killed two thousand years ago in the space of 3 years because the logistics didn't exist even if there was a motive. So if there were such accounts I wouldnt believe them in the same way I don't believe that noah flood either in its entirety , or its a legend that developed out of a river flood story invoking a trader saving some of his animals in a small boat.

    I would also suggest that no large scale miracles happened as otherwise he would have been a much bigger deal. The ability to feed over 10000 people at will would propel him into instant messiah. This didn't happen, the romans didn't try to use his powers or attempt to kill him as an instant threat to the empire. He was a local nuisance.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    silverharp wrote: »
    Extraordinary claims and all that. Well no i wouldn't believe that several million civilians could be killed two thousand years ago in the space of 3 years because the logistics didn't exist even if there was a motive . . .
    Nitpick: Both the logistics and the motives certainly did exist. An estimated 36 million people died in the Three Kingdoms War in the second century CE. 13 million died in the An Lushan rebellion in the eight century, and Tamarlane's conquests killed between 7 and 20 million in the late fourteenth century. True, the latter two are not two thousand years ago, but the technology them employed was largely available two thousand years ago. 1.1 million died in the seige of Jerusalem in just one year, 73 CE.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    @P. There is miracle inflation from the gospels after Mark , this is what one would expect of a legend. To call the donkeygate episode ;-) an embellishment for theological reasons is also exactly the same as the retelling the story of how big the fish you caught was that gets bigger each time. It fits in to how other legends have developed. Even in the 20th century there have been various messiah type characters, take away 2000 years of technology / education and all you have is a constant supply of people that actually believe them.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Nitpick: Both the logistics and the motives certainly did exist. An estimated 36 million people died in the Three Kingdoms War in the second century CE. 13 million died in the An Lushan rebellion in the eight century, and Tamarlane's conquests killed between 7 and 20 million in the late fourteenth century. True, the latter two are not two thousand years ago, but the technology them employed was largely available two thousand years ago. 1.1 million died in the seige of Jerusalem in just one year, 73 CE.

    I believe military sieges happened as they are consistent with the military tecgnology at the time. I wouldn't believe that millions of people could be singled out and tricked into walking into a death camp 2000 years ago.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    silverharp wrote: »
    @P. There is miracle inflation from the gospels after Mark , this is what one would expect of a legend.
    Oh, sure. But what that suggests is that the inflated miracle stories may be legendary, not that the figure of Jesus of Nazareth is legendary. Plus, I have to point out that the donkeygate story (I like the term!) is not a miracle story. There's nothing supernatural about borrowing a donkey.
    silverharp wrote: »
    To call the donkeygate episode ;-) an embellishment for theological reasons is also exactly the same as the retelling the story of how big the fish you caught was that gets bigger each time. It fits in to how other legends have developed . . .
    Um, false dichotomy here. Surely miracle inflation is itself a theological embellishment?

    But in any event this isn't an example of miracle inflation. It would be miracle inflation if Matthew say ". . . and the donkey was fifty metres tall! And it could shoot sparks out of its eyes!" But all he does is to add a second donkey to the mix which, even to the credulous, does not look particularly miraculous. He does it to underline the parallel with the (Septuagint version of) the Zech story, which however you cut it is obviously a theological motive. So, yes, this is a theological embellishment. How would it not be? (Unless you think there actually was two donkeys, and Mark unaccountably failed to mention this, and Matthew is just setting the record straight. Which I presume is not what you think.)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    A theological development that changes the account of what is supposed to have happened is helping to create a legend as it feeds the prophesy myths.
    The feeding of up to 10000 people is exactly the same as a 50 ft donkey. It didn't happen , it was added in later.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    silverharp wrote: »
    A theological development that changes the account of what is supposed to have happened is helping to create a legend as it feeds the prophesy myths.
    Never ascribe to miracle (or claims of miracle) that which can be explained without any miracle.

    The Zech story was well-known to Mark and to Matthew, but of course it was also well known to Jesus, and to the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time. If it plausible that Mark invented the donkeygate story in order to invoke the Zech story and present Jesus as the fulfilment of a prophesy, it is equally plausible that Jesus chose to enter Jerusalem on a donkey in order to invoke the Zech story and present himself as the fulfilment of a prophesy.

    I don't see why you would assume that this was Mark's idea, rather than being Jesus's idea. if it was Mark's idea, he was writing at a time when there were many living witnesses to these events, so if he made stuff up he was risking that being pointed out. Whereas if it was Jesus' idea, we don't have this problem.

    The simplest explanation for the donkeygate story is that Jesus decided to enter Jerusalem on a donkey in order to invoke the Zech story, and present himself in that light. This is perfectly plausible, and completely explains everything in Mark's and Matthew's accounts. (And Luke's.) It doesn't require any unnecessary assumptions, and it avoids questions about why Mark would think he would get away with inventing stuff about this, or why he did get away with it. It's not necessarily the correct explanation but, Occam's razor and all that, it's the most attractive one.
    silverharp wrote: »
    The feeding of up to 10000 people is exactly the same as a 50 ft donkey. It didn't happen , it was added in later.
    Quite possibly. But that doesn't do anything to suggest that the donkeygate story was also added in.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    Otherwise it is an unremarkable story and I have no reason to doubt that Jesus "borrowed" a donkey ( today doing that with a car would see you in court though;-) , and ape an event from the ot.
    Along the same lines aren't there other issues where Nazzerine from the ot is woven into the nt as being someone from a place , instead of its actual meaning referring to a type of way of living a life and other strange events like a census that couldnt have happened the way its suggested but is a plot divice to get people into the right place.
    It just has the feel of a basic story about a man being puffed up.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    As an outsider on the matter, I tend to agree with Perergrinus, Manach and ScumLord. In fact, I think that if more Christians took a more level-headed view of biblical texts as shown above then we'd all be better off. I think that looking at the texts with an objective gaze rather than the nonsense contained in Homer911's link is going to more productive for everyone.

    You see here's the thing about the gospel accounts.

    Firstly, let's separate the gospel accounts into the synoptics and John. The synoptics have been long grouped together because they share the same basic narrative but with certain editorial and detail changes made by Matthew and Luke to Mark's original story which they both heavily copy. John has an entirely different tone, setting, scope etc. which necessitate it be analysed separately.


    Are the gospels eyewitness accounts?

    In a word, no. It's not that the gospels don't contain a certain core element of both sayings by Jesus and events of Jesus' life but that they're not contempraneous and not recorded by direct eyewitnesses. There are several reasons for this.

    Firstly, Mark. In several places it is clear that Mark is not an eyewitness. Firstly, he is deeply unfamiliar with the geography of the land he is writing about as shown in the exorcism story at the start of Chapter 5 and also in Chapter 7 when he portrays Jesus going from Tyre through Sidon to the Sea of Gallilee which is in the opposite direction. Secondly, he is also unfamiliar with Jewish law and custom. He wrongly claims that a woman could initiate a divorce in 10:11-12 and many of the details surrounding Jesus' trial by the Sanhedrin are also incompatible with Jewish law. He also mentions Jesus being buried in a single piece of cloth when the custom would have been multiple wrappings (something corrected by John). Thirdly, Mark is also not writing close to the time when the events take place. An example of this is the depiction of the death of John the Baptist during the life of Jesus, something which didn't occur until 36CE.

    Next, Matthew. Matthew depsite traditional authorship claims is not the disciple. The main reason for this is that his text copies over 90% of its content from Mark's gospel. He adds to the text additional sayings by Jesus, a nativity narrative and some Jamesian edits to Mark's soteriology. Matthew also introduces certain misread prophecies to try and beef up Jesus' backstory. For example, Matthew misreads Micah 5:2 leading to the claim that Jesus was born in Bethlehem when in the OT Bethlehem was a tribe not a place. Again in Chapter 2, Matthew quotes Hosea ("out of Egypt I have called my son") when the original text refers to Israel and not Jesus ("When Israel was a child I loved him, and out of Egypt I called my son.")

    Finally, Luke. Luke, even according to traditional authorship claims would only have been a disciple of Paul not Jesus. Secondly, Luke is the furthest removed of the synoptics. It shares only about 50% of its content with Mark (which increases to 64% if you include Q material). It too is not without historical mistakes such as this at the beginning of Luke 3
    "In the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar—when Pontius Pilate was governor of Judea, Herod tetrarch of Galilee, his brother Philip tetrarch of Iturea and Traconitis, and Lysanias tetrarch of Abilene— during the high-priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John son of Zechariah in the wilderness."
    Lysanias of Abilene died in 36CE.
    Luke is written by an urban, wealthy Greek-speaking individual for a Greek-speaking audience sometime around 85CE. His stated aim (1:1-4) in telling his story is not to be an eyewitness account but to provide theological meaning to the events that happened.

    Then we have John. As I said at the beginning, John is vastly different from the synoptics. It only shares about 12% of its content with the synoptic narrative. It's tone is completely different. It emphasises the divinity of Jesus, it rarely mentions the poor and suffering as a focus of Jesus' ministry, it contains no interactions with scribes and pharisees, it contains many more self-referential sayings by Jesus, it has much more of its setting in Judea than Galilee. It is the furthest removed of any of the gospels with a completion date between 90 and 100CE. It was written by multiple authors, probably in several stages. It was written by people deeply familiar with, but opposed to, Jewish teachings. In the resurrection story it attempts to correct the errors made in the synoptic accounts (moving the date of the last supper, Jesus' burial wrappings etc.). It's dichotomous with the synoptics to the point that both cannot be historically accurate, but the mystic overtones of John's gospel suggests that a detailed eyewitness account is not the intention of the authors of this gospel.


    So what are the gospels?

    The gospels are stories, written by different authors, none of whom we actually know anything about. They were written over a period of a quarter of a century with the earliest being finished about 70CE, probably having been begun somewhere between 60 and 65CE. Depsite the claims made in the gospels (Mark 1:28, Luke 4:37), Jesus seems to have remained relatively unknown before his death. There are no contempraneous accounts (either biblical or otherwise). In the furore that developed after the death of Jesus it is likely that the only things to initially circulate were the events leading to Jesus' death and a collection of sayings based on his teachings. The gospels coming thirty years later are an attempt to flesh out a backstory for Jesus. In places this takes the form of misquoting the OT to show Jesus as having fulfilled an OT prophecy. In other places it takes the form of a syncretic borrowing from the OT, retold and embellished to emphasise Jesus as being greater than the prophets of the OT (e.g. Jairus' daughter, the feeding of the 5000).


    Was there a historical Jesus?


    Yes, very probably. The claim that there was a man called Jesus is very ordinary and as such only requires ordinary evidence to support. The extrabiblical sources on Jesus (e.g. Josephus, Tacitus etc.) are very vague and fraught with error but combined with the biblical accounts it is reasonable to suggest that someone named Jesus existed.
    As for Jesus death, personally, I'm on the fence still. There is both biblical and extrabiblical support for crucifixion but there is also a great deal of biblical evidence which presents problems for Jesus' death being by crucifixion. In several places in NT accounts there are references to Jesus being hung on a tree (using a word which for the most part in its other uses in the NT refers to an actual living tree, not a cross). The biblical punishment for the crimes which Jesus is accused of (blasphemy) is stoning followed by being hung on a tree. Why would the Romans get involved in a religious legal matter? The Sanhedrin had the power to stone religious offenders, they execute Stephen by stoning in Acts.

    TLDR, yes there probably was a real person named Jesus. No, the gospel accounts are not eyewitness accounts, nor in places do they purport to be. They are not wholly reliable but do contain parts that are probably historically accurate. As Manach says though, the supernatural elements well, that's a different story.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,573 ✭✭✭Nick Park


    silverharp wrote: »
    JESUS RIDES TWO ANIMALS AT ONCE! - Matthew 21:7
    They brought the donkey and the colt, placed their cloaks on them, and Jesus sat on them.
    [NOTE: This impossible story resulted from a mistranslation of Zechariah 9:9.]

    It's hardly impossible. I think you're trying to be hyper-literalistic here instead of trying to catch the author's intent. (anyone can be a wise-ass if we deliberately choose to misunderstand others)

    Firstly, it's not clear if the second 'them' refers to the animals, or to the cloaks. So it could simply mean, "They placed cloaks on the two animals and then Jesus sat on the cloaks." That would be a perfectly reasonable use of language if Jesus sat on the cloaks on the back of one of the animals.

    Secondly, it would hardly be unreasonable if Jesus rode one of the animals for part of the journey, hopped off for whatever reason, and then continued on while riding the second animal.

    Matthew, as an educated Jew with an obvious knowledge of Hebrew, would probably have been well aware that there were two rabbinical schools that translated Zechariah 9:9 differently. There was a conservative school that maintained that Hebrew should be translated strictly literally and without parallelisms (therefore meaning two animals in Zechariah) and a more liberal school that recognised parallelisms (meaning one animal).

    However, if you don't read the text with an existing presupposition that Matthew is inventing stuff, then there is no need to see a mistake here.

    Matthew looks at the account of Jesus entering Jerusalem with the two animals, and that reminds him of the Zechariah prophecy (which would be applicable whether it referred to one animal or two).


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭Greaney


    oldrnwisr wrote: »

    In a word, no. It's not that the gospels don't contain a certain core element of both sayings by Jesus and events of Jesus' life but that they're not contempraneous and not recorded by direct eyewitnesses. There are several reasons for this.

    Firstly, Mark. In several places it is clear that Mark is not an eyewitness. Firstly, he is deeply unfamiliar with the geography of the land he is writing about as shown in the exorcism story at the start of Chapter 5 and also in Chapter 7 when he portrays Jesus going from Tyre through Sidon to the Sea of Gallilee which is in the opposite direction. Secondly, he is also unfamiliar with Jewish law and custom. He wrongly claims that a woman could initiate a divorce in 10:11-12 and many of the details surrounding Jesus' trial by the Sanhedrin are also incompatible with Jewish law. He also mentions Jesus being buried in a single piece of cloth when the custom would have been multiple wrappings (something corrected by John). Thirdly, Mark is also not writing close to the time when the events take place. An example of this is the depiction of the death of John the Baptist during the life of Jesus, something which didn't occur until 36CE.
    .

    I believe Mark was Peters scribe, so folk sometimes refer to it as the gospel according to Peter.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 20,724 ✭✭✭✭El_Duderino 09


    Peregrinus wrote: »

    Scumlord suggests that the Bible "was seriously embellished over the centuries". That may be true for some of the Old Testament texts but, as regards texts dealing with Jesus, not so much. The four gospels were all written, in pretty much the form that we now have them, well within a century of the death of Jesus. At least three of the four were written within the lifetimes of people who knew Jesus. We can interrogate their reliability as historical texts, but not really on the grounds that they were "seriously embellished over the centuries". Ironically, that claim would itself be a "serious

    Sorry but anyone who knows or cares about the fallibility of human memory wouldn't consider this reliable. Stories which are passed around for 40-70 years before being written down are virtually meaningless. We have events which were written about by contemporary historians in real time and the stories conflict.

    The miracle at Fatima is one example of a modern event which was reported at the time and is complete mistruth. It doesn't take intention to lie to end up with unreliable stories. Human brains aren't built to remember events completely faithfully and add in layers of word of mouth and motivation to embellish the story and you're left with a meaningless collection of stories.

    That doesn't prove they're wrong but it puts you back to square 1 in terms of demonstrating the truth of the Jesus story


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,573 ✭✭✭Nick Park


    Stories which are passed around for 40-70 years before being written down are virtually meaningless.

    This kind of thinking was popular 100 years ago, but has been thoroughly debunked by anthropologists.

    It has been demonstrated that societies that utilise oral history, particularly by continually retelling stories in group settings, can transmit huge amounts of information with great accuracy.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 18,854 ✭✭✭✭silverharp


    Nick Park wrote: »
    It's hardly impossible. I think you're trying to be hyper-literalistic here instead of trying to catch the author's intent. (anyone can be a wise-ass if we deliberately choose to misunderstand others)

    Firstly, it's not clear if the second 'them' refers to the animals, or to the cloaks. So it could simply mean, "They placed cloaks on the two animals and then Jesus sat on the cloaks." That would be a perfectly reasonable use of language if Jesus sat on the cloaks on the back of one of the animals.

    Secondly, it would hardly be unreasonable if Jesus rode one of the animals for part of the journey, hopped off for whatever reason, and then continued on while riding the second animal.

    Matthew, as an educated Jew with an obvious knowledge of Hebrew, would probably have been well aware that there were two rabbinical schools that translated Zechariah 9:9 differently. There was a conservative school that maintained that Hebrew should be translated strictly literally and without parallelisms (therefore meaning two animals in Zechariah) and a more liberal school that recognised parallelisms (meaning one animal).

    However, if you don't read the text with an existing presupposition that Matthew is inventing stuff, then there is no need to see a mistake here.

    Matthew looks at the account of Jesus entering Jerusalem with the two animals, and that reminds him of the Zechariah prophecy (which would be applicable whether it referred to one animal or two).

    isnt the main point that going by the other Gospels there was only animal and that its the writer of Matthew that got confused with the OT when trying to pull in OT prophesies? I cant imagine he intended Jesus to be a circus acrobat here.

    A belief in gender identity involves a level of faith as there is nothing tangible to prove its existence which, as something divorced from the physical body, is similar to the idea of a soul. - Colette Colfer



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 20,724 ✭✭✭✭El_Duderino 09


    Nick Park wrote: »
    This kind of thinking was popular 100 years ago, but has been thoroughly debunked by anthropologists.

    It has been demonstrated that societies that utilise oral history, particularly by continually retelling stories in group settings, can transmit huge amounts of information with great accuracy.

    Any sources I could look up for that? I have to say I doubt that's true but I'd be interested how that research was done


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,573 ✭✭✭Nick Park


    Any sources I could look up for that? I have to say I doubt that's true but I'd be interested how that research was done

    Professor Norma Ellen Groce, a medical anthropologist, did a study of the deaf community in Martha's Vineyard covering several centuries of their history. The resulting book was called "Everyone Here Spoke Sign Language" (Harvard University Press, 1985).

    In it (page 117) she wrote, "Many things never enter written accounts - the mundane facets of everyday-life, neighborhood events and characters, gossip, scandal and misconduct. Quite often it is only through oral history that one can get full knowledge of an individual or incident, even if it is mentioned in a written record. And in a good number of cases in this study, the written records turned out to be wrong, and the oral information much more accurate."

    Similarly, Katherine Dettwyler, in "Cultural Anthropology and Human Experience" (Waveland Press, 2011), states: "When oral histories are used, most people recount their stories to other people who participated, or at least in the presence of others who participated, and the audience serves as a corrective influence. Information is continually exchanged - people add details they remember, and if the storyteller tries to alter the story to cast some person or event in a more favorable light, the audience will object. Oral histories become joint productions of many people's perspectives and memories, while written accounts may be colored by the particular agenda of the author." (page 402)

    Dettwyler compares the process of oral history to how wikipedia works, with false entries being quickly corrected by other contributors. She also makes the point that, in cultures that practice oral history, people develop memories that can hold amazing amounts of detailed information.

    You might also want to read up on some of the literature that deals with Aboriginals giving evidence in Australian Courts. In years gone by their testimony was often discounted by white judges who assumed that illiterate peoples could not possibly record history accurately. However, recent studies have debunked such cultural prejudice.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,573 ✭✭✭Nick Park


    silverharp wrote: »
    isnt the main point that going by the other Gospels there was only animal and that its the writer of Matthew that got confused with the OT when trying to pull in OT prophesies?

    That might be the main point of your argument, but it's not the main point of the Gospel accounts.

    None of the other Gospels says that there was only one animal. They might only mention one of them, but that is a very different thing from what you just claimed.

    If I say, "I went to Croke Park with my mate" - I am not mentioned the other 80,000 people that were there, but you would need to be pursuing a very twisted agenda to claim that I said that only the two of us were in Croke Park that day.
    I cant imagine he intended Jesus to be a circus acrobat here.

    But your imagination is precisely where such a notion comes from. I've already pointed out that Matthew's language, and probable intent, is perfectly consistent with Jesus riding on one of the animals, or with him switching animals at some stage of the procession.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Greaney wrote: »
    I believe Mark was Peters scribe, so folk sometimes refer to it as the gospel according to Peter.

    Well, no. There are several reasons why Mark, the attendant of Peter is not the author of the Gospel.

    1. Anonymity

    The first point is something which I stated in my last post, the author of the gospel is anonymous. This creates two problems. Firstly, if we look at other historical works of the era we see that the author typically identifies himself in the work itself. For example if we look at Thucydides’ History of the Peloponnesian War, the author states at the beginning:

    “Thucydides, an Athenian, wrote the history of the war in which the Peloponnesians and the Athenians fought against one another.”

    Secondly, even when the gospels begin to be attributed to an author the naming convention used doesn't indicate that the associated name is actually the author. For example, the gospels are named in the form:

    εὐαγγέλιον κατὰ

    which translates as the gospel "according to" or "handed down from" whereas direct authorship attributions at the time are different. The typical attributions of the time feature the name of the author listed in the genitive case, for example, Tacitus "Corneli Taciti Libri" (The books of Cornelius Tacitus).

    Finally, the association of the gospel with Mark comes over a century after the gospel is completed. In Against Heresies, Irenaeus names the four gospel writers but this only comes in 180CE. Later again Eusebius claims that Papias in 120CE also attributes the gospel to Mark but since the Papias work is not extant the claim cannot be relied upon.

    2. Attribution


    This is also a large problem in identifying Mark as the author of the Gospel. If Mark was the attendant of Peter and is recollecting Peter's preaching then we expect references to Peter as the source of the teachings which we don't see. Also, the author of Luke-Acts, as mentioned previously, relies heavily on the Gospel of Mark in creating his gospel. Since the author of Luke-Acts mentions John Mark in Acts 12:25 and yet fails to mention him as the author of the gospel, we have further reason to doubt Mark's authorship.
    Attribution is also a problem if the intended purpose of the gospel is as a historical account. Compare, for example, an actual historical work of the era such as Roman Antiquities by Dionysius of Halicarnassus:

    "Some information I received orally from men of the greatest learning, with whom I associated; and the rest I gathered from histories written by the approved Roman authors — Porcius Cato, Fabius Maximus, Valerius Antias, Licinius Macer, the Aelii, Gellii and Calpurnii, and many others of note; with these works, which are like the Greek annalistic accounts, as a basis, I set about the writing of my history.”

    Dionysius clearly states his sources just as any classical or modern historian would, something that is completely absent from the gospel of Mark.


    3. Authorial presence & narrative structure

    Another problem is the way in which the narrative in the gospel of Mark is structured. Even if there is no reference to Peter in the gospel, you would expect some degree of personal reference in the narrative which again we don't find. Again, when we compare this with historical narratives of the time we see the difference. In Histories, Tacitus relates his relationship with those he is documenting by saying:

    “I myself knew nothing of Galba, of Otho, or of Vitellius, either from benefits or from injuries. I would not deny that my elevation was begun by Vespasian, augmented by Titus, and still further advanced by Domitian; but those who profess inviolable truthfulness must speak of all without partiality and without hatred.”

    The narrative of Mark's gospel on the other hand is told from the perspective of an omniscient third party. It claims witness, for example, to events that none of those present could have seen. In Mark 14:35-37, Mark recounts the words of Jesus' prayer despite nobody being around to hear them.


    4. Jewish culture

    This is something which I covered in my last post but it bears repeating that Mark is deeply ignorant of the land and culture which he depicts. This is unlikely for someone who is either recollecting or taking dictation from Peter. He is unfamiliar with Palestine, Jewish customs, Jewish law and whenever he quotes the OT it is only from the Septuagint. He is clearly a Roman citizen using, as he does, several Latinisms, loan words which are not used by other more familiar writers.

    5. Syncretism

    The final problem with Mark as the author recollecting Peter's teachings is that so much of the narrative is built from syncretic borrowings, not just from the OT but also from Greek literature. For example, Mark's story of Jairus' daughter is lifted from 2 Kings 4:25-35. Similarly, the feeding of the multitude in Mark 6:31-44 is lifted directly from 2 Kings 4:42-44.
    As I said, it's not just OT borrowings either. The exorcism story at the start of Chapter 5 is borrowed, in part, from the Odyssey. It even provides the same literary joke used by Homer (i.e. compare and contrast the use of legion in Mark's story with "nobody" in the Odyssey).


    The point here is that as I stated in my last post, the gospels aren't historical accounts. They are not written like historical accounts nor in some cases (Luke) do they claim to be. They are articles of faith intended to expound teachings and encourage faith. Even early church fathers such as Irenaeus do not prioritise their historical accuracy:

    "It is not possible that the Gospels can be either more or fewer in number than they are. For, since there are four zones of the world in which we live, and four principal winds, while the Church is scattered throughout all the world, and the pillar and ground of the Church is the Gospel and the spirit of life; it is fitting that she should have four pillars, breathing out immortality on every side, and vivifying men afresh."

    Irenaeus says that there should only be four gospels not because there were only four but because it matches the four corners of the world and the four winds.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Greaney wrote: »
    I believe Mark was Peters scribe, so folk sometimes refer to it as the gospel according to Peter.
    There is an old tradition that the author of Mark's gospel was a follower of Peter. But the gospel itself makes no such claim, and I think most moderns scholars regards that as doubtful, not least because Peter gets pretty bad press in Mark. It may or may not be the case that Mark knew Peter, but he doesn't appear to have liked or admired him.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    silverharp wrote: »
    isnt the main point that going by the other Gospels there was only animal and that its the writer of Matthew that got confused with the OT when trying to pull in OT prophesies? I cant imagine he intended Jesus to be a circus acrobat here.
    No. If you're not confused by the Zech story, why would you assume that Matthew was? Matthew consciously echoes the Zech story; as has already been pointed out by Nick and myself there are a couple of ways of reading both the Zech story and the Matthew story that explain the use of the plural and that do not require circus acrobatics. Matthew adds the second donkey to draw attention to the Zech parallel. He has no reason to think that this will cause his readers to imagine circus acrobatics, and there is no evidence that it ever did.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Any sources I could look up for that? I have to say I doubt that's true but I'd be interested how that research was done
    I don't have any sources for you, because this is not my field. But it's an issue that comes up a lot in anthropological studies of preliterate societies. And since many pre-literate socieites survived into modern times, modern scholarship has had plenty of opportunity to study them first-hand.

    And, yes, they do develop reliable techniques for transmitting information that they consider to be important, including their foundational stories and myths. They have to, really. Societies that become widely literate tend to lose these techniques after a few generations because they no longer need them. But assuming that, because we don't have such techniques, therefore nobody does, is just a form of unthinking arrogance; we assume that our immediate experience is normative for the whole of humanity at all times and in all circumstances. When you think about it, that's a pretty unlikely assumption.

    There are probably better examples, but most people are familiar with the story of Troy. Troy features largely in Homer's Iliad and was long assumed to be a mythic construct, until archaeology established in the twentieth century that it was, in fact, a historical reality. The events that the Iliad deals with occurred in the late bronze age, about 1200 BCE. The Iliad itself, the linguistic evidence suggests, was composed four or five hundred years later. And, scholars reckon, the Iliad was handed down orally for some centuries after that before ever being written down. Now, we don't know exactly how much of the Iliad is historically-rooted, but it's certainly a great deal more than we thought a hundred years ago, and this is history that was successfully handed down entirely orally for at least five centuries, and probably rather longer. So the notion that historical memories of Jesus could have been successfully preserved orally between 30 CE, when he died, and about 60-70 CE, is not at all improbable.

    The other point to remember is that Mark's gospel is the earliest surviving gospel we have. But it's not the earliest text - Paul's writings are earlier, and they mention Jesus (though they don't tell us a great deal about him). And Mark is not necessarily the earliest gospel written - we know there are lost gospels, including 'Q', and we don't know the date of those. It's possible - though this is just conjecture - that the sources Mark drew on in composing his gospel were not all oral. He could have drawn on now-lost written texts. So for Mark to be historically reliable we don't have to assume successful oral transmission for even forty years.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Well, we don't agree on everything, Paul. As for the events of Holy Week, leaving aside the resurrection, if we accept - and I think most do - that the early Christian community in Jerusalem was a historical reality, then the parsimonious explanation for the existence and beliefs of that community is that Jesus of Nazareth really was put to death in Jerusalem, by the Roman, with the connivance or support of the Temple authorities. While we don't have any contemporary accounts of that - as in, written at the time of the supposed events - we have several apparently independent accounts which were written at a time when many eye-witnesses to the supposed events would still be alive, and within the same time-frame and in the same city we have a community which predates those writings, but apparently shares the belief that the events occurred.
    It requires an awful lot of completely unevidenced and fairly improbable assumptions to explain how this could be if, in fact, none of the events ever occurred. Many members of the Christian community would know that the alleged events had not occurred. More to the point, many opponents of the Christian community would know that, too. And yet we have no record, or memory, of anyone challenging the Christians over this. So, we have several first-generation accounts of these events and of the community that stemmed from them, and we have no first-generation (or later) accounts of anyone denying or disputing these events. If you think the original Holy Week would have been a significant enough phenomenon to be the subject of a surviving contemporary record, the early Christian community and its struggles with the authorities would have been a much more significant phenomenon, and if there was any denial of the Holy Week events, you'd expect that to be recorded too, wouldn't you?

    Well we agree on something, P, and that’s a start. We agree that very little can be known about the historical Jesus, do we not? However, we now seem to be moving from discussing Jesus per se to discussing the historicity of Holy Week. I must admit, I find your arguments here to be somewhat curious.

    The first point you seem to be making above is that the events of Holy Week must have been true, or else somebody at the time would have called them out on it. As pointed out above by our dear friend and correspondent oldernwisr, the Gospels were written well after the death of Jesus, and any hope of content in them being provided by ‘eye-witnesses’ is optimistic (to put it one way), and is also unevidenced.

    As for non-Christian opponents of the Christian communities (and I use the plural: from what I have read, the range of beliefs that these communities had about Christos were quite varied, sometimes in ways that would have been quite unacceptable to contemporary mainstream Christianity), we do have some fragments of challenges to Christianity from early writers. We have Celsus in the second century launching a pretty comprehensive attack on the faith, and from what snippets we have of him, one can almost hear the sneer in his voice. We can’t read him directly, though, as his works have been lost (though I suspect not ‘lost’ in the way you would lose your car keys; it’s hard to imagine an anti-Christian polemic surviving centuries of Christian dominance of Western culture).

    I also find it difficult to imagine a situation where early Christian communities could be persecuted without reference to the validity of their beliefs. I presume that any such persecution would also have been pretty comprehensive in its criticism.
    In fact I think your surprise at the lack of contemporary comment on the Holy Week events is misplaced. Passover happened every year, and trouble and strife at Passover time was not unusual, but so far as I know we have no contemporary accounts of any particular Passover from this time. There were no newspapers or chronicles, if Pilate or other Roman authorities were making reports to Rome none of them have survived, any record that might have existed in the Temple archives was lost when the Temple was sacked and burned. If an individual wrote a private letter mentioning the events it would be a freak if it survived; the fact that none has survived is not very telling.

    A guy was crucified at the insistence of the Sandedrin. A notorious insurrectionist was released by the Roman authorities in his stead. On his crucifixion, there was an earthquake, and then the dead rose. Then the crucified guy rose, too.

    Hardly a run-of-the-mill Passover.

    At the time in question, there was already quite a wide Jewish diaspora. There were Jewish communities in Alexandria, for example, who were in regular contact with Jerusalem (I must beg your indulgence on this point, I’ve searched for a link but to no avail. The reader may take it on faith :)). Yet there is no mention at all of such goings-on. From what I can recall reading, scholars have identified up to 42 individuals who may have been in a position to make comment about the events of Holy Week, but none do. Even allowing for anti-Christian zeal in arriving at the number of 42, we could still expect to see some hint of strange goings-on at this particular Passover, but there is none. I’ll concede that this is hardly conclusive, but it does leave a big question mark hanging over Holy Week for some commentators.
    I think mainstream historical opinion suggests that, more probably than not, Jesus of Nazareth was not only a historical figure but he was put to death by the Romans at Jerusalem some time the fourth decade of the common era, and this event forms the foundation of the accounts of the passion in the four gospels. There is nothing remotely supernatural, or even surprising, about this claim, and crucifixions are known to have been a commonplace event in Palestine at the time; very few (if any?) of them are the subject of any surviving contemporary documentation. What would be much more surprising is if the Christian movement became a significant problem for the Roman and/or Jewish authorities at a time when everybody knew that its foundational story was completely bogus and yet we have no record or memory of anybody every mentioning the fact.

    Yes, mainstream historical opinion does agree that Jesus of Nazareth was executed by the Romans. But is this a question that can be resolved by an appeal to majority? I can accept the events of Holy Week as a traditional part of Christian belief, and the crucifixion and resurrection as core to the faith, but I have a hard time accepting them as history.

    On a tangent, there is a question that is bothering me. In my previous post I wrote ‘in turn resurrected himself’. This doesn’t scan right to me. What would be a better way to put it, I wonder? Would it read better as 'in turn was resurrected himself'?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    pauldla wrote: »
    Well we agree on something, P, and that’s a start. We agree that very little can be known about the historical Jesus, do we not?
    Actually, we may not. It depends on what is meant by “very little”, and by “known”.

    I don’t think that knowing a historical fact is a simply binary. It's not the case that we either know something to be a historical fact or we do not; rather, we can be more or less confident of its historicity. I think there are a fair amount of things presented in the gospel account as “facts” which we think are probably, very probably or certainly not factual. I think there’s a smaller number of things which we think are probably, very probably or certainly factual - but some of them are key things. And we have a wide range of things which we probably can’t know to be factual or not factual, but (a) we can say they are more or less plausible, and (b) we can say that their factuality is more or less important.

    I’d suggest we can accept at least the following as factual: Jesus of Nazareth is a historical figure who came from Nazareth. He had a mother called Mary, a brother called James and other brothers and sisters. He was an itinerant preacher in first century Palestine. He had a core group of followers whom we know as the Twelve Apostles, though there may not have been twelve of them, and membership may have fluctuated over time. And there was a wider group of followers, including some who financed his mission. He was put to death in Jerusalem by the Romans. After his death, he and his teachings were venerated by the group we know as the early Christians. His teachings are the foundation of the beliefs of that group - which is not to say that his teachings might not have been embellished, or that we can reliably identify which of the teachings ascribed to him are in fact his, and which are not, but we can do that in at least some cases. If you want to get specific, among his authentic teachings were the injunction to celebrate the eucharistic meal, and the condemnation of divorce (but this is not an exhaustive list of what we believe him to have taught). In general, we can reliably locate him and his teachings in the then-emerging pharasaic tradition of Judaism. And, while your mileage may vary, I would not describe all that as “very little”.
    pauldla wrote: »
    However, we now seem to be moving from discussing Jesus per se to discussing the historicity of Holy Week . . .the first point you seem to be making above is that the events of Holy Week must have been true, or else somebody at the time would have called them out on it. As pointed out above by our dear friend and correspondent oldernwisr, the Gospels were written well after the death of Jesus, and any hope of content in them being provided by ‘eye-witnesses’ is optimistic (to put it one way), and is also unevidenced.
    Unevidenced, but highly likely. Even accepting the later dates for the composition of Mark, it was composed about 30 to 35 years after the supposed events of Holy Week, so there would have been many living witnesses from the time and place concerned. And Mark, in any event, is not our earliest evidence. Paul is writing earlier, about twenty years after the events, and while he doesn’t go into much detail about holy week he does mention the crucifixion several times; in fact it’s one of his major themes and he expounds on its significance at length. Paul isn’t an eye-witness, of course, and doesn’t claim to be, but that’s all the more reason why he could have been authoritatively and convincingly contradicted if, in reality, the crucifixion had never happened.

    Plus, of course, there’s nothing remotely implausible or improbable about the notion that someone perceived to be stirring things up might be crucified under Pontius Pilate. The pax romana was, ironically, quite brutal and even by its standards Pilate was regarded as one of its more savage practitioners. If there’s a historically implausible aspect to the gospel accounts of the crucifixion it’s that Pilate is presented as indecisive, reluctant to execute and manipulated by the Temple authorities. This is not the Pilate we know from other sources.

    Which brings me back to the point I made earlier. Some of the events of Holy Week, or some details of those events, may be more readily taken as historical than others. This isn’t a simple binary, and there isn’t a one-size-fits-all position to be taken on every detail that appears in any of the gospel narratives.
    pauldla wrote: »
    As for non-Christian opponents of the Christian communities (and I use the plural: from what I have read, the range of beliefs that these communities had about Christos were quite varied, sometimes in ways that would have been quite unacceptable to contemporary mainstream Christianity), we do have some fragments of challenges to Christianity from early writers. We have Celsus in the second century launching a pretty comprehensive attack on the faith, and from what snippets we have of him, one can almost hear the sneer in his voice. We can’t read him directly, though, as his works have been lost (though I suspect not ‘lost’ in the way you would lose your car keys; it’s hard to imagine an anti-Christian polemic surviving centuries of Christian dominance of Western culture).
    We don’t have to imagine it; lots of anti-Christian polemic survives. We have, for example, texts which deny and ridicule Christian claims about the virgin birth.
    pauldla wrote: »
    I also find it difficult to imagine a situation where early Christian communities could be persecuted without reference to the validity of their beliefs. I presume that any such persecution would also have been pretty comprehensive in its criticism.
    If you mean “anyone who persecuted the Christians must be presumed to have denied every Christian belief”, I can't agree. It’s entirely plausible that critics of the Christians accepted the fact of Jesus’s crucifixion, and knew it to be a historical fact, while denying claims about his resurrection.
    pauldla wrote: »
    A guy was crucified at the insistence of the Sandedrin. A notorious insurrectionist was released by the Roman authorities in his stead. On his crucifixion, there was an earthquake, and then the dead rose. Then the crucified guy rose, too.
    See, the earthquake and the dead rising are among the details that I would say are not historically well-attested at all - we have them only from Matthew, and you know how he loves the dramatic flourish. The Barrabas story is also problematic, mainly because it is said to be founded on a supposed custom for which otherwise we have no evidence, and because it does not gel with what we know about Pilate. It could be true, or have some basis in truth, but on balance I’d think not. But the reasons we would discount those claims do not apply to the claim that Jesus was crucified by the Romans, or to the claim that the Temple authorities were instrumental in bringing this about.
    pauldla wrote: »
    From what I can recall reading, scholars have identified up to 42 individuals who may have been in a position to make comment about the events of Holy Week, but none do. Even allowing for anti-Christian zeal in arriving at the number of 42, we could still expect to see some hint of strange goings-on at this particular Passover, but there is none. I’ll concede that this is hardly conclusive, but it does leave a big question mark hanging over Holy Week for some commentators.
    Surely that argument cuts both ways? If we can identify at this remove 42 people who could have attested to the events of Holy Week, there were surely many, many more who could have been identified, and indeed who were still living, at the time Paul was writing, and even still at the later time that Mark was writing. Therefore, if Paul and Mark simply made up stuff out of whole cloth, detection and refutation was likely. Therefore, why would they do this? And, if they did, why would the Christian community take their easily-falsified claims so seriously? (Why, for that matter, did the Christian community even exist before Paul wrote? And, if it didn’t exist, who was he writing to, and who was reading his letters, and why would anyone take them seriously?)
    pauldla wrote: »
    Yes, mainstream historical opinion does agree that Jesus of Nazareth was executed by the Romans. But is this a question that can be resolved by an appeal to majority? I can accept the events of Holy Week as a traditional part of Christian belief, and the crucifixion and resurrection as core to the faith, but I have a hard time accepting them as history.
    I’m with you on the resurrection, but not on the crucifixion. On the resurrection - mainly because it is such a wildy extravagant claim - I don’t think we can say that it is historically established, or comes even close to being historically established. I think the furthest we could go is to say that it is historically established that there was a strong belief in the resurrection within the first generation of Christian believers - i.e. they believed it at a time when there would have been many living witnesses to the events claimed.
    pauldla wrote: »
    On a tangent, there is a question that is bothering me. In my previous post I wrote ‘in turn resurrected himself’. This doesn’t scan right to me. What would be a better way to put it, I wonder? Would it read better as 'in turn was resurrected himself'?
    Are you concerned about grammar or theology? :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 20,724 ✭✭✭✭El_Duderino 09


    Nick and Peregrinus,

    Thanks for the relies. I'll be honest in saying I've only recently become aware of historians putting more stock in oral history. In social science they find myths and alagory useful. They often apply thematic analysis and similar techniques which look for themes rather than detail.

    Is that the kind of thing you're talking about?

    In this case even if we agree that detail can be passed on faithfully then you still need corroborating evidence. Otherwise you end up saying 'this information can be passed on faithfully, therefore this information was passed on faithfully' and you're too clever to fall for that. If that were an acceptable standard of evidence, there would be no way to distinguish between truth and myth and any ancient myth would have to be accepted as equally likely to be true as oral transmitted bible stories.

    Even if we accept Jesus existence, there is no way from there to accepting his divinity or ability to suspend the laws of nature in order to turn water to wine or walk on water or raise people from the dead. Nor is there a reliable way to distinguish between OT events such as the existence of giants or an exodus from Egypt through a red Sea miracle.

    You need one consistent standard of evidence and that's unlikely to allow Jesus divinity without also allowing in every other fantastical god story by ancient people.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Actually, I don't think you do need "one consistent standard of evidence". For obvious reasons, you will accept the claim that Jesus was born much more readily than you will accept the claim that he rose from the dead. Evidence which would easily persuade you of the historicity of the former claim could well be completely inadequate to persuade you of the historicity of the latter claim.

    Basically, Jesus' divinity is a theological claim, not a historical one. It would be a serious category mistake to demand historical proof of Jesus's divinity, and people who demand it disclose rather more about themselves than they do about the Christian faith.

    Of course, the theological claim of divinity is accompanied by historical claims, like the resurrection. In principle, the resurrection could be established as a historical fact. But the weight of historical evidence required to do this would be colossal. It's very hard to imagine what, at this remove, could persuade somebody of the historicity of the resurrection. Almost everybody who accepts the resurrection as a historical event - and, cards on the table, I include myself here - does so because they accept the theological claim about his divinity. If you're not already a Christian, or drawn to Christianity, the historical method alone is very, very unlikely to persuade you of the reality of the resurrection. And in saying that I am not just talking about the historical evidence that we have, but of any historical evidence that we plausibly could ever have had. Unless you are an eye-witness to the resurrection, or to one of the post-resurrection appearances of Christ, what kind of historical evidence could possibly persuade you of the reality of the resurrection? Even if produced fifty authenticated written accounts of people who were unconnected with one another and who all testified that they met the risen Christ, you'd still be thinking "Mass hysteria? Separate victims of a a clever illusion, repeated on a number of occasions? A doppelganger?" Even if you thought that the resurrection was, on the balance of probabilities, a historical event I don't see there's any way that you could exclude those as possibilities.

    In other words, even if the resurrection is indeed a historical reality, the absence of any historical evidence to establish it as such is unsurprising, because their really is no plausible historical evidence that could discharge the extraordinary burden of proof required.

    The principal barrier to accepting the resurrection, in my view, is not the absence of historical evidence; it's the apparent impossibility of such an event occutring in the first place. If you can get past that, the absence of irrefutable historical evidence is comparatively easily explained.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭Greaney


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Well, no. There are several reasons why Mark, the attendant of Peter is not the author of the Gospel.

    1. Anonymity

    The first point is something which I stated in my last post, the author of the gospel is anonymous. This creates two problems. Firstly, if we look at other historical works of the era we see that the author typically identifies himself in the work itself. For example if we look at Thucydides’ History of the Peloponnesian War, the author states at the beginning:

    “Thucydides, an Athenian, wrote the history of the war in which the Peloponnesians and the Athenians fought against one another.”

    Secondly, even when the gospels begin to be attributed to an author the naming convention used doesn't indicate that the associated name is actually the author. For example, the gospels are named in the form:

    εὐαγγέλιον κατὰ

    which translates as the gospel "according to" or "handed down from" whereas direct authorship attributions at the time are different. The typical attributions of the time feature the name of the author listed in the genitive case, for example, Tacitus "Corneli Taciti Libri" (The books of Cornelius Tacitus).

    Finally, the association of the gospel with Mark comes over a century after the gospel is completed. In Against Heresies, Irenaeus names the four gospel writers but this only comes in 180CE. Later again Eusebius claims that Papias in 120CE also attributes the gospel to Mark but since the Papias work is not extant the claim cannot be relied upon.

    2. Attribution


    This is also a large problem in identifying Mark as the author of the Gospel. If Mark was the attendant of Peter and is recollecting Peter's preaching then we expect references to Peter as the source of the teachings which we don't see. Also, the author of Luke-Acts, as mentioned previously, relies heavily on the Gospel of Mark in creating his gospel. Since the author of Luke-Acts mentions John Mark in Acts 12:25 and yet fails to mention him as the author of the gospel, we have further reason to doubt Mark's authorship.
    Attribution is also a problem if the intended purpose of the gospel is as a historical account. Compare, for example, an actual historical work of the era such as Roman Antiquities by Dionysius of Halicarnassus:

    "Some information I received orally from men of the greatest learning, with whom I associated; and the rest I gathered from histories written by the approved Roman authors — Porcius Cato, Fabius Maximus, Valerius Antias, Licinius Macer, the Aelii, Gellii and Calpurnii, and many others of note; with these works, which are like the Greek annalistic accounts, as a basis, I set about the writing of my history.”

    Dionysius clearly states his sources just as any classical or modern historian would, something that is completely absent from the gospel of Mark.


    3. Authorial presence & narrative structure

    Another problem is the way in which the narrative in the gospel of Mark is structured. Even if there is no reference to Peter in the gospel, you would expect some degree of personal reference in the narrative which again we don't find. Again, when we compare this with historical narratives of the time we see the difference. In Histories, Tacitus relates his relationship with those he is documenting by saying:

    “I myself knew nothing of Galba, of Otho, or of Vitellius, either from benefits or from injuries. I would not deny that my elevation was begun by Vespasian, augmented by Titus, and still further advanced by Domitian; but those who profess inviolable truthfulness must speak of all without partiality and without hatred.”

    The narrative of Mark's gospel on the other hand is told from the perspective of an omniscient third party. It claims witness, for example, to events that none of those present could have seen. In Mark 14:35-37, Mark recounts the words of Jesus' prayer despite nobody being around to hear them.


    4. Jewish culture

    This is something which I covered in my last post but it bears repeating that Mark is deeply ignorant of the land and culture which he depicts. This is unlikely for someone who is either recollecting or taking dictation from Peter. He is unfamiliar with Palestine, Jewish customs, Jewish law and whenever he quotes the OT it is only from the Septuagint. He is clearly a Roman citizen using, as he does, several Latinisms, loan words which are not used by other more familiar writers.

    5. Syncretism

    The final problem with Mark as the author recollecting Peter's teachings is that so much of the narrative is built from syncretic borrowings, not just from the OT but also from Greek literature. For example, Mark's story of Jairus' daughter is lifted from 2 Kings 4:25-35. Similarly, the feeding of the multitude in Mark 6:31-44 is lifted directly from 2 Kings 4:42-44.
    As I said, it's not just OT borrowings either. The exorcism story at the start of Chapter 5 is borrowed, in part, from the Odyssey. It even provides the same literary joke used by Homer (i.e. compare and contrast the use of legion in Mark's story with "nobody" in the Odyssey).


    The point here is that as I stated in my last post, the gospels aren't historical accounts. They are not written like historical accounts nor in some cases (Luke) do they claim to be. They are articles of faith intended to expound teachings and encourage faith. Even early church fathers such as Irenaeus do not prioritise their historical accuracy:

    "It is not possible that the Gospels can be either more or fewer in number than they are. For, since there are four zones of the world in which we live, and four principal winds, while the Church is scattered throughout all the world, and the pillar and ground of the Church is the Gospel and the spirit of life; it is fitting that she should have four pillars, breathing out immortality on every side, and vivifying men afresh."

    Irenaeus says that there should only be four gospels not because there were only four but because it matches the four corners of the world and the four winds.

    Well there's a load of material that suggests he did.

    http://coldcasechristianity.com/2014/is-marks-gospel-an-early-memoir-of-the-apostle-peter/
    http://jesusevidences.com/originntgospels/authorshippublicationgospelmark.php
    http://www.religionfacts.com/christianity/texts/mark
    http://www.theopedia.com/Gospel_of_Mark

    .... and so on

    Regarding the gospel being critical of Peter, that surely would be evidence that Peter had a humble heart. Denying Christ a vehimitly as he did must have weighed heavy on his heart.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Greaney wrote: »
    Well there's a load of material that suggests he did.

    http://coldcasechristianity.com/2014/is-marks-gospel-an-early-memoir-of-the-apostle-peter/
    http://jesusevidences.com/originntgospels/authorshippublicationgospelmark.php
    http://www.religionfacts.com/christianity/texts/mark
    http://www.theopedia.com/Gospel_of_Mark

    .... and so on

    Regarding the gospel being critical of Peter, that surely would be evidence that Peter had a humble heart. Denying Christ a vehimitly as he did must have weighed heavy on his heart.

    It would appear that you didn't read anything I posted or even your own links.

    Firstly, at no point do you or any of your links challenge the points I made in my last post. None of your links deal with the evidence from the text itself or the surrounding context.

    Secondly, your links don't even agree with each other or what we already know about the authorship of NT texts.
    For example, this link you provided suggests a composition date for Mark in the mid 50sCE and states that it is the 2nd book in the NT which is demonstrably false. Mark was not completed until 70CE which again makes the authorship of John Mark questionable. If the book was not completed until 70CE then somebody else would have had to complete the text since John Mark died in 68CE. However, other than the later addition of Mark 16:9-20, there is no evidence of a second author.
    Also, the website Cold-Case Christianity you link to defends the traditional view that:
    "The traditional view recognizes Mark as a Palestinian Jew who wrote his Gospel using Peter as his source."
    However, as I've already posted, Mark is not a Palestinian Jew. He writes in Koine greek, has no knowledge of Palestinian geography or Jewish laws and customs. He is a Roman citizen as evidenced by the language he uses in his gospel. There are 18 references to Latinisms (loan words from Latin to Greek) in the NT and 10 of them are found in Mark's gospel.
    The bulk of Cold-Case Christianity's argument is built from statements from early Church fathers. However, since the earliest reliable statement comes from Irenaeus, over 100 years after the publication of the gospels, all these statements amount to are appeals to authority and weak ones at that.

    The links you provide don't expound any persuasive arguments. They devote a significant amount of their time to quoting the early church fathers, none of whom were alive at the time of the gospel. They do not deal with any of the textual evidence presented in the gospel nor do they make any attempt to answer contrary evidence. Moreover, they do not attempt to show why the overwhelming academic consensus is wrong.

    By all means, if you have issues with the points I made then post a critique of your own, but a handful of random links featuring points I've already dealt with is not helpful.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,247 ✭✭✭Greaney


    Grand so


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Sorry Peregrinus but there are one or two questions I have which you might indulge?
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Paul is writing earlier, about twenty years after the events, and while he doesn’t go into much detail about holy week he does mention the crucifixion several times; in fact it’s one of his major themes and he expounds on its significance at length. Paul isn’t an eye-witness, of course, and doesn’t claim to be, but that’s all the more reason why he could have been authoritatively and convincingly contradicted if, in reality, the crucifixion had never happened.

    You see here's the thing about Paul and the crucifixion.

    Firstly, not meaning to be overly pedantic but the idea of crucifixion is something that only gradually inveigles its way into Pauline writings. The earliest Pauline epistle 1 Thessalonians which comes 20 years after Jesus' death doesn't mention crucifixion at all. I would say that it's more likely that crucifixion is incorporated by Paul from external sources rather than an idea he was initially presented with.

    Secondly, there are three reasons why I find it hard to believe that Paul is reliable on the basis that he could have been easily contradicted.
    The first reason is that even in the early Church something which contradicted the prevailing opinion is not likely to remain extant. Look at the works of Celsus for example. All of his works were gathered up and destroyed to the point that the only reference to him now are quotes in Origen. Hell, even works by early Church fathers like Papias are no longer extant. The canon was decided on for mostly theological reasons rather than historical ones so the idea that there are no works contradicting Paul is not entirely persuasive.
    The second reason why Paul is not entirely persuasive to your argument is that the people to whom Paul writes in the authentic epistles are not eyewitnesses and not in a position to challenge any of Paul's historical claims. The only authentic Pauline epistles: Romans, 1&2 Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, 1 Thessalonians and Philemon are all hundreds of miles from Jerusalem and decades after the event. These people aren't in a position to know if Paul is making a historically accurate claim or not. All they've got to go on are some vague rumours and a theologically attractive story.
    The final reason is that we have no authentic writings of the people best placed to know whether Paul was speaking the truth or not. The Petrine and Johannine epistles are pseudepigraphal and there is substantial evidence also to place the composition of James late into the 1st century or early 2nd century. Even if James were authentic we can see that there is a deep theological rift between them. Of the apostles which Paul has contact with he doesn't exactly get along with them. So to say that Paul could easily have been contradicted seems weak.



    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Plus, of course, there’s nothing remotely implausible or improbable about the notion that someone perceived to be stirring things up might be crucified under Pontius Pilate. The pax romana was, ironically, quite brutal and even by its standards Pilate was regarded as one of its more savage practitioners. If there’s a historically implausible aspect to the gospel accounts of the crucifixion it’s that Pilate is presented as indecisive, reluctant to execute and manipulated by the Temple authorities. This is not the Pilate we know from other sources.

    I agree that the depiction of Pilate is one of the major aberrations in the Passion narrative but I'm still left with one question. Why do the Sanhedrin not just stone Jesus to death for blasphemy? They have the power to do so and that is the punishment which the OT prescribes.

    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Of course, the theological claim of divinity is accompanied by historical claims, like the resurrection. In principle, the resurrection could be established as a historical fact. But the weight of historical evidence required to do this would be colossal. It's very hard to imagine what, at this remove, could persuade somebody of the historicity of the resurrection. Almost everybody who accepts the resurrection as a historical event - and, cards on the table, I include myself here - does so because they accept the theological claim about his divinity. If you're not already a Christian, or drawn to Christianity, the historical method alone is very, very unlikely to persuade you of the reality of the resurrection. And in saying that I am not just talking about the historical evidence that we have, but of any historical evidence that we plausibly could ever have had. Unless you are an eye-witness to the resurrection, or to one of the post-resurrection appearances of Christ, what kind of historical evidence could possibly persuade you of the reality of the resurrection? Even if produced fifty authenticated written accounts of people who were unconnected with one another and who all testified that they met the risen Christ, you'd still be thinking "Mass hysteria? Separate victims of a a clever illusion, repeated on a number of occasions? A doppelganger?" Even if you thought that the resurrection was, on the balance of probabilities, a historical event I don't see there's any way that you could exclude those as possibilities.

    Just a quick question here in relation to the highlighted sentence above. Perhaps I'm misreading it or there's something else I'm missing but this seems to be logically backwards.
    It seems to me from the NT that Jesus up to the point of his death in the gospels is a philosopher/mystic/sage who challenges certain Jewish teachings, introduces new teachings, performs some alleged miracles, exorcisms etc. and eventually makes a nuisance of himself to the Sanhedrin. However, at that point in time there were other people who would have had reasonably similar backstories, Apollonius of Tyana, for example. The thing that sets Jesus apart, at least according to certain prominent apologists is that, in being resurrected, Jesus proves his claims and his divinity. Therefore surely, it would be the case that those who accept the divinity of Jesus do so on the basis of the resurrection and not the other way around?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Firstly, not meaning to be overly pedantic but the idea of crucifixion is something that only gradually inveigles its way into Pauline writings. The earliest Pauline epistle 1 Thessalonians which comes 20 years after Jesus' death doesn't mention crucifixion at all. I would say that it's more likely that crucifixion is incorporated by Paul from external sources rather than an idea he was initially presented with.
    Granted. But Paul isn’t really concerned with giving us the facts about Jesus - nothing he writes is remotely like biography or history. That is simply not his concern. Crucifixion is one of the few factual claims that Paul makes about Jesus anywhere in his writings. So the fact that he doesn’t mention it in his very first letter doesn’t really tell us very much. He doesn’t mention it until he wants to draw some theological inference from it, and he then mentions it not as something startling or new, but more with the air of something that he expects his readers to take in their stride, because they already know about it. The very few facts that Paul presents about Jesus’ life and teachings in all his writings are all presented in this way.

    As for him "getting it from an external source", everything he knew about Jesus he got from an external source. All this tells us that the notion that Jesus was crucified was already current when Paul was writing, which is hardly an indicator of falsity.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Secondly, there are three reasons why I find it hard to believe that Paul is reliable on the basis that he could have been easily contradicted.
    The first reason is that even in the early Church something which contradicted the prevailing opinion is not likely to remain extant. Look at the works of Celsus for example. All of his works were gathered up and destroyed to the point that the only reference to him now are quotes in Origen . . .
    Yes, it’s not likely to remain extant now. And we don’t have to appeal to conspiracy theories and censorship campaigns to explain this; the great bulk of everything that was written in that period has been lost, because it only ever existed in one or a few copies, and they were kept in biodegradable form. Celsus wasn’t writing at a time when Christians were powerful; they were a persecuted minority, and certainly not in a position to buy up and destroy the many copies of Celsus, if his writings ever existed in many copies. And if they didn’t, we don’t need to make up censorship theories to explain why there were lost. We don’t know that Christians suppressed the writings of Celsus, but we do know that, to the extent Celsus ideas have come down to us at all, it’s because Christian writers - like Origen - recorded them.

    But that’s a side issue. My main point was that Paul’s claims about Jesus’s crucifixion, if they were false, would have been easily refuted at the time by the many living eye-witnesses. If we think Paul - by his own admission, not an eye-witness - simply made them up, we have to explain why anybody accepted them, when there were presumably no eye-witnesses confirming them, and many denying them. We have to explain, indeed, why Paul would even put himself in this position. Why would he make up such an easily-refuted story?

    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    The second reason why Paul is not entirely persuasive to your argument is that the people to whom Paul writes in the authentic epistles are not eyewitnesses and not in a position to challenge any of Paul's historical claims. The only authentic Pauline epistles: Romans, 1&2 Corinthians, Galatians, Philippians, 1 Thessalonians and Philemon are all hundreds of miles from Jerusalem and decades after the event. These people aren't in a position to know if Paul is making a historically accurate claim or not. All they've got to go on are some vague rumours and a theologically attractive story.
    Yes, I know. But they have access to eyewitness accounts. There were very good communications networks - both people journeying, and people sending letters - between the Jewish communities throughout the Empire, particularly the Eastern end of it. There was a huge amount of trade done and, where there are trade routes, there is communication. Paul is writing between 20 and 40 years after the events. He is writing to already-existing Christian communities in all these cities, so clearly word of Jesus and his teachings has already reached these cities, and they had heard enough, and were sufficiently interested, to form themselves into communties dedicated to following The Way, before Paul ever wrote to them at all. And it's also clear that Paul is hearing from these communities; he knows what's going on, what challenges they are facing, etc.

    So, there were good communications, readily available. If, in fact, the truth was that Jesus had been stoned by the Sanhedrin, it’s likely that some or all of these communities already knew that. At a minimum, Paul would have to assume that they might know how Jesus died, and he would certainly know that they could easily find out if they cared to. So he can’t suppose that he can through in a passing reference to the crucifixion of the Lord and have it automatically taken as definitive. Yet he doesn’t write as someone attempting to persuade his readers that Jesus was crucified.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    The final reason is that we have no authentic writings of the people best placed to know whether Paul was speaking the truth or not.
    Yes, we don’t. But, my point is, Paul’s readership did. In fact, they had better; they could communicate directly with living eye-witnesses, if they cared to. And the issue is not why would we accept Paul’s assertion that Jesus died by crucifixion, but why would they? Paul writes as though this is something already well-known and uncontroversial, we have no record or evidence of it’s being challenged by anybody, if anyone had challenged it and it was untrue that could easily have been shown, and it’s clear that the Christian community did accept it in the long term. The parsimonious explanation for all this is that it was well-known, uncontroversial and accepted without challenge because it was, in fact, true. Occam’s razor, and all that.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Why do the Sanhedrin not just stone Jesus to death for blasphemy? They have the power to do so and that is the punishment which the OT prescribes.
    I don’t know, is the short answer, but I could hazard a guess that it had something to do with the politics of the day. First, how much freedom did the Roman authorities actually give the Sanhedrin in practice to stone people? Do we know how often this occurred, or in what circumstances it was permitted? Did the actions of Jesus definitely fall within those circumstances? (And I would just point out that if the doubt the historicity of the detail of the gospel accounts then we can hardly offer a convinced “yes” to that last question.) Did Pilate, in particular, who seems to have been a bit of a control freak, get shirty if the Temple authorities actually stoned people to death?

    Or, might it be that the Temple could get away with stoning people now and then, but that they used up a certain amount of Roman patience or credit every time they did so? Stoning people might not have been a cost-free exercise, as far as their stock with the authorities went. Or, it might have been unpopular with the mob. It could be that the Sanhedrin could have stoned Jesus, but that on balance it suited them better to have the Romans deal with the problem.

    I concede, I’m asking questions here, not offering answers. But I don't think your question is unanswerable. It's just that I can't answer it.
    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Just a quick question here in relation to the highlighted sentence above. Perhaps I'm misreading it or there's something else I'm missing but this seems to be logically backwards. It seems to me from the NT that Jesus up to the point of his death in the gospels is a philosopher/mystic/sage who challenges certain Jewish teachings, introduces new teachings, performs some alleged miracles, exorcisms etc. and eventually makes a nuisance of himself to the Sanhedrin. However, at that point in time there were other people who would have had reasonably similar backstories, Apollonius of Tyana, for example. The thing that sets Jesus apart, at least according to certain prominent apologists is that, in being resurrected, Jesus proves his claims and his divinity. Therefore surely, it would be the case that those who accept the divinity of Jesus do so on the basis of the resurrection and not the other way around?
    Well, it’s trite to say it, but assume for the moment that Jesus was resurrected. Obviously the first Christians would be those who had first-hand knowledge of this event, so they were persuaded of the truth of the resurrection, and that then influenced how they understood, and how much significance they attached, to all that they remembered Jesus as having done or said. Even if they were followers of Jesus from beforehand - and let’s assume they were, it’s not unlikely - the resurrection would still have come as a complete earthquake to them, and would have caused them to reevaluate their existing understandings of Jesus and his teachings - a process which must have taken (and appears from the record to have taken) considerable time.

    So, for the first Christians the foundation of their faith is indeed the their experience of the resurrection, and everything else is built on top of that. And this is the generation that produces the Gospels. (The evangelists themselves are not eyewitnesses to the risen Jesus, but they are members of communities which include eyewitnesses [again, if we assume the facticity of the resurrection].) All of the Gospels contain the resurrection, and they are written by, and for, communities that are already followers of Jesus and already believe in the resurrection, so even if their accounts of Jesus’ public ministry read to you as accounts of typical philosopher/mystic/sage of the period, that is not how the writers intend to present him, or how they expect their readers to see him. The reader reading, e.g., the Sermon on the Mount already knows how the story ends, and that affects how he reads the Sermon on the Mount.

    Right. Skip forward 2,000 years. How does anybody become a Christian? Not, obviously, by being an eyewitness to the historical resurrection. In 90%+ of cases, by being raised as a Christian; in the rest, by conversion. Why do people convert? There’s a variety of stories there, but mostly through relationships, through encounters with the Christian community, through a desire to participate in the community. The theologians will say that that is an encounter with the risen Christ - the risen Christ is incarnate in his church - but it’s obviously not a first-hand experience of the historical resurrection. Even if there are a few converts who have mystical inner experiences, visions, etc, - even if you assume the validity of these experiences, they are still not an experience of the historical resurrection. To experience that as a historical event, you had to be there. And none of us were.

    Therefore, apart from the very first generation of Christians - and, even then, only some of them - nobody comes to Christianity by being convinced of the historical facticity of the resurrection, and everything else flowing from that


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