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What kind of evidence would prove god ?

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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,851 ✭✭✭Mark Hamill


    And if God gives some of the confidence in other means?

    Then it wouldn't make a difference anyway, as the mere feeling of confidence in something is no measure of its validity.
    Does this question mean you agree with my point? That your argument to use one means at the exclusion of any other means is an argument against personal revelation as sole means for believing in god?
    I understand that. The argument at post 19 merely points out potential.

    No, you clearly do not understand that. A guess has the potential to be correct, but that does not make guesses as reliable as empirical evidence.
    What's important is how much confidence the designer of the various means decides to assign to each means. The importance of the means rests on how God has positioned it in his rankings - not in anything intrinsic to the means itself.

    This contradict itself (god creates means, therefore the importance of means rests on something god intrinsically put in them), and is also contradicted by reality. God doesn't put confidence in means, we do. Hence the amount of confidence you put in a specific means, like personal revelation, is different to the amount of confidence I put in it.
    I suppose I was pointing out the circularity of the reasoning which supposes man can establish God exists somehow independently from God. Folk are pointing to empiricism - forgetting who it is gives them the confidence of anything through it

    If empiricism is a means devised by god, then the use of empiricism to prove god would not be done independently from god.
    There is potential for one means to be enough - it only takes God to assign 100% confidence to that means. Empiricism clearly couldn't be it however, since conclusions there are tentative. Potentially revelation could give 100% confidence.

    No matter how much confidence you have in your personal revelation, no-one else can have 100% confidence in your claim of it, because it is personal to you. Everyone can have 100% confidence in an empirical claim, simply by repeating the impersonal test.
    On contradiction:

    ...all I'm saying here is that the medium through which confidence is instilled in us is irrelevant. The medium (empiricism / revelation / reasoning is a vehicle for carrying confidence, not a generator of confidence itself. Suppose God didn't grant empiricism the confidence raising it gives us - we couldn't be confident using empiricism then - that would be our experience..

    Does the above clarify?

    No, you are still making the same contradiction. If the amount of confidence we get from a "means" is what's important, and that "means" is set by god, then what that "means" is, is important.
    True. We could be brains in jars - you included.

    Or you could think that you car brakes will stop you in 10 metres, but it actually takes 20.
    Sure we can't be. But that doesn't get you off the hook placed by the argument at post 19. It's you who is being posed the dilemma. Not me :)

    It shows your dilemma to be invalid. Your dilemma takes no account for the simple fact that confidence can come from humans themselves, without any act from god, and that we can be confident in things that are entirely false.

    Even if we accept that a particular personal revelation is 100% from god, and that receiver is right to be 100% confident in it, it still would be of 0% use to anyone else. All any observer of that receiver can see, is someone 100% confident of their revelation. But that someone is completely indistinguishable from every other person who claims revelations from different, contradictory gods (that can't exist). The only way for personal revelation to be of any use to observers, is if everyone were to receive an identical revelation from god. But only because everyone could confirm with everyone else the nature of the revelation. I.e. because they can empirically confirm it.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,851 ✭✭✭Mark Hamill


    The 'free will' is exercised in our ability to dodge the truck. Although God works to exhaust you and drive you into a corner where he can squish a squeak out of you, he won't close off every possible avenue of escape. If your will is prepared to contort and twist and wriggle out of the way then escape him it shall.

    Out of the frying pan (events leading up to salvation typically aren't very pleasant - sinners (saved sinners like me included) don't like facing the truth head on, especially not about themselves) and into the fires of Hell.

    So, do you cross the street with your eyes closed, just in case you accidentally avoid getting hit by a truck and therefore reject god?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    Then it wouldn't make a difference anyway, as the mere feeling of confidence in something is no measure of its validity.


    If your not confident in the validity of something - say empiricism, then what other measure do you use? Before answering, take time to ensure that you don't go in a circle and end up relying on confidence.

    Does this question mean you agree with my point? That your argument to use one means at the exclusion of any other means is an argument against personal revelation as sole means for believing in god?

    I think we've crossed wires so let me reboot. Post 19 says in effect, that to exclude, a priori, any means God may decide to use to reveal himself to you is unreasonable.

    So naturally I'm not saying one should exclude any means. If God turns up empirically to your satisfaction, fine. On the other hand, if God turns up to you by Revelation, then also fine.

    No, you clearly do not understand that. A guess has the potential to be correct, but that does not make guesses as reliable as empirical evidence.

    What does reliablity do but instill ...confidence :)

    Revelation isn't a guess. Revelation is God revealing himself by means of his own choosing. By definition (should he assign a high confidence levels to that means) revelation is reliable. The potential is that it is more reliable than empiricism. I'm not arguing that it is so, I'm just arguing it's potentially so.


    This contradict itself (god creates means, therefore the importance of means rests on something god intrinsically put in them), and is also contradicted by reality. God doesn't put confidence in means, we do.

    Who made us so that we do this (remembering that we're looking at what the consquences are for empiricism vs. revelation should God exist)?

    Hence the amount of confidence you put in a specific means, like personal revelation, is different to the amount of confidence I put in it.

    Would your view change if God used Revelation to make himself known to you and assigned a high level of confidence such that you felt confident?


    If empiricism is a means devised by god, then the use of empiricism to prove god would not be done independently from god.

    Indeed not - the conclusion "God exists" relies on God to enable that revealing-via-empiricism. Since knowledge of God's existence depends ultimately on an act of God, the means is rendered irrelevant. Should he chose means X then X is good, if Y then Y is good. There is no independent of God means to decide he does exist.


    No matter how much confidence you have in your personal revelation, no-one else can have 100% confidence in your claim of it, because it is personal to you. Everyone can have 100% confidence in an empirical claim, simply by repeating the impersonal test.

    No matter to me.

    I would imagine a persons primary concern with respect to the existence of God should be that they know he does.

    No, you are still making the same contradiction. If the amount of confidence we get from a "means" is what's important, and that "means" is set by god, then what that "means" is, is important.

    Only because of the level of confidence attaching to it. No confidence instilled, then the means is useless.


    It shows your dilemma to be invalid. Your dilemma takes no account for the simple fact that confidence can come from humans themselves, without any act from god, and that we can be confident in things that are entirely false.

    Confidence from humans, but not independently of God. If you're more confident because other humans view something as you do then it's only so because God made it to be so. So it's not humans you're getting your confidence but from a system devised by God involving humans. If God hadn't devised it so then confidence from humans you wouldn't have.

    The fact we can be confident and wrong has no bearing on the argument. This is about God acting and about God assigning confidence to any means he reveals himself by: empricism and Revelation. You have no way to decide that one way he uses is better than another since your subject to what he decides confidence levels should be.

    Even if we accept that a particular personal revelation is 100% from god, and that receiver is right to be 100% confident in it, it still would be of 0% use to anyone else.

    Directly I agree. But would point out that the conviction of those who've met God thus has caused the spread of Christianity - which has been a fundamental piller in bringing about Western society.

    All any observer of that receiver can see, is someone 100% confident of their revelation. But that someone is completely indistinguishable from every other person who claims revelations from different, contradictory gods (that can't exist). The only way for personal revelation to be of any use to observers, is if everyone were to receive an identical revelation from god. But only because everyone could confirm with everyone else the nature of the revelation. I.e. because they can empirically confirm it.

    Understood and agreed. And no worries.

    This argument is addressed at something within individuals: pride before God. Folk are telling their Creator what hoops he has to jump through before they will believe.

    By sustaining the argument of post 19, pride is forced to retreat. The reasoned position is to say "Yes .. God can use any means he likes to reveal himself to me and if he does so, then I'm subject to his doing so and would know he exists because he made it so"

    The person concluding so has bowed a little before the God he doesn't believe in.



    :)


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 31,967 ✭✭✭✭Sarky


    Archaeological and historical evidence that the bible is literal ?
    And we're back to "God wants us to lower our standards".

    Why should I settle for less from someone who built a freaking universe?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,851 ✭✭✭Mark Hamill


    If your not confident in the validity of something - say empiricism, then what other measure do you use? Before answering, take time to ensure that you don't go in a circle and end up relying on confidence.

    You examine why you are confident in something before you accept or disregard it. The act of feeling confident should come after recognising the reliability of a means, not before.
    What does reliablity do but instill ...confidence :)

    Reliability leads to confidence, but that doesn't mean that confidence leads to reliability.
    Revelation isn't a guess. Revelation is God revealing himself by means of his own choosing. By definition (should he assign a high confidence levels to that means) revelation is reliable. The potential is that it is more reliable than empiricism. I'm not arguing that it is so, I'm just arguing it's potentially so.

    It doesn't matter how you try to twist the argument, its still wrong. Revelation, to anyone but the receiver is indistinguishable from a guess, and given that there are receivers with contradicting revelations, we can't even say if the receiver's own assessment of their revelation is going to be accurate. Your confidence in your revelation is only a measure of your own confidence, it does not relate to its reliability or its veracity.
    Who made us so that we do this (remembering that we're looking at what the consquences are for empiricism vs. revelation should God exist)?

    Should god exist, then god did it. But then, should god exist, that means he put different confidence quotients, not just in different means, but for different people too. You and I do not share the same confidence in revelation. Which means that you can't say that a personal means gives 100% confidence, only that you, yourself, have 100% confidence in it. Its only with impersonal means that we can say how much confidence should be obtainable, and thats because it doesn't matter who is using the means, the confidence of a sincere observer would be the same.
    Would your view change if God used Revelation to make himself known to you and assigned a high level of confidence such that you felt confident?

    You are asking if god did something to my brain, would I have the same opinion? If my brain is compromised, then I am likely to have differing opinions.
    No matter to me.

    I would imagine a persons primary concern with respect to the existence of God should be that they know he does.

    Given that there are multiple contradictory personal revelations of different gods, this would mean that personal means are useless for a sincere observer to know anything. A sincere observer would have to ask "How can I know that my confidence in my revelation is genuine, seeing as another observer has equal confidence in their contradictory personal revelation?". Its only with an impersonal means that an observer can verify if what they know is accurate.
    Confidence from humans, but not independently of God. If you're more confident because other humans view something as you do then it's only so because God made it to be so. So it's not humans you're getting your confidence but from a system devised by God involving humans. If God hadn't devised it so then confidence from humans you wouldn't have.

    The fact we can be confident and wrong has no bearing on the argument. This is about God acting and about God assigning confidence to any means he reveals himself by: empricism and Revelation.

    The fact that all confidence, in your argument, comes from god is what is irrelevant. What is relevant is that false confidence and true confidence are not distinguishable by personal means (your personal revelation and my contradictory personal revelation give us both 100% confidence, despite at least one of us having to be wrong).
    Historically we have seen people with equal amounts of (ultimately god given) false and true confidence (geocentricism vs heliocentrism, creationism vs evolution etc.) but it was only with impersonal means that we determined the valid position to take. Why would this be the case for every piece of human discovery, but not for god?
    You have no way to decide that one way he uses is better than another since your subject to what he decides confidence levels should be.

    But we can recognise why we assert confidence on things. God may be the ultimate source, but we still (in our own eyes) gain confidence from sources like reliability, verifiability or bias reinforcement. Every single means we use, and every single subject we use it on, can be evaluated in terms of whether or not the confidence we get is true or false confidence. That is how we can say if one means is better than another.
    Directly I agree. But would point out that the conviction of those who've met God thus has caused the spread of Christianity - which has been a fundamental piller in bringing about Western society.

    And the conviction of the mosquito causes the spread of malaria, a disease which has killed more people than any war humans have waged on each other. Conviction is not an indicator of veracity, benevolence or betterment.
    Understood and agreed. And no worries.

    This argument is addressed at something within individuals: pride before God. Folk are telling their Creator what hoops he has to jump through before they will believe.

    By sustaining the argument of post 19, pride is forced to retreat. The reasoned position is to say "Yes .. God can use any means he likes to reveal himself to me and if he does so, then I'm subject to his doing so and would know he exists because he made it so"

    The person concluding so has bowed a little before the God he doesn't believe in.

    But our pride is based on our confidence, which is god given. Therefore our current pride is exactly as god intends, meaning we do not need to bow, for to do so would be to reject confidence that god had given us already.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    ......

    Directly I agree. But would point out that the conviction of those who've met God thus has caused the spread of Christianity - which has been a fundamental piller in bringing about Western society.

    ......

    Not wishing to derail the conversation, and tip-toeing delicately around the first part of the above, I want to point out that Western society was up and running well before the spread of Christianity, and that Western society was fundamental to the spread of Christianity, not vice versa. Indeed, it's hard to imagine Christianity without the influence of Western (i.e. Greek) philosophy.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    pauldla wrote: »
    Not wishing to derail the conversation, and tip-toeing delicately around the first part of the above, I want to point out that Western society was up and running well before the spread of Christianity, and that Western society was fundamental to the spread of Christianity, not vice versa. Indeed, it's hard to imagine Christianity without the influence of Western (i.e. Greek) philosophy.

    Let me add "...we see today" to "..Western Society". And let me underline "a" in " a fundamental pillar"


    Does that help?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    You examine why you are confident in something before you accept or disregard it. The act of feeling confident should come after recognising the reliability of a means, not before.

    And who made it so that all these links would result in confidence? God. SO why are you confident, ultimately? Because God made it so.

    You are reliant on God to prove God empirically.


    It doesn't matter how you try to twist the argument, its still wrong. Revelation, to anyone but the receiver is indistinguishable from a guess, and given that there are receivers with contradicting revelations, we can't even say if the receiver's own assessment of their revelation is going to be accurate. Your confidence in your revelation is only a measure of your own confidence, it does not relate to its reliability or its veracity.

    a) We're not concerned what others think

    b) See above


    Should god exist, then god did it. But then, should god exist, that means he put different confidence quotients, not just in different means, but for different people too. You and I do not share the same confidence in revelation.

    That would be perfectly understandable had you not had personal revelation from God. I know plenty that do and whilst there is all sorts of disagreement about theological points there isn't about God's existence. We know we know.



    You are asking if god did something to my brain, would I have the same opinion? If my brain is compromised, then I am likely to have differing opinions.

    Technically it's your spirit he interfaces with but no matter..

    Your brain wouldn't be anymore compromised than had it been altered by empirical evidence (your sense of confidence, reliability being but an arrangement of the neural network)

    God stands at the root of all the brain alteration - which underlines the irrelevancy of 'means whereby'

    Thanks for bringing that point up!


    Given that there are multiple contradictory personal revelations of different gods, this would mean that personal means are useless for a sincere observer to know anything. A sincere observer would have to ask "How can I know that my confidence in my revelation is genuine, seeing as another observer has equal confidence in their contradictory personal revelation?". Its only with an impersonal means that an observer can verify if what they know is accurate.

    By now the problems are mounting:

    1) Means are irrelevant since God lies behind them all

    2) Knowledge is but an alignment of neural networks. How they are aligned by God is irrelevant

    3) That there are 100,000 religions added to the world everyday has no bearing on God realigning your neural network.


    The fact that all confidence, in your argument, comes from god is what is irrelevant.What is relevant is that false confidence and true confidence are not distinguishable by personal means (your personal revelation and my contradictory personal revelation give us both 100% confidence, despite at least one of us having to be wrong).

    "means" are irrelevant. You keep on pointing to them as if somehow you can escape God being the one to give them any weight. When you lean on them to differentiate yourself from me you lean on an act of God.

    Once you do that you're bunched!




    Historically we have seen people with equal amounts of (ultimately god given) false and true confidence (geocentricism vs heliocentrism, creationism vs evolution etc.) but it was only with impersonal means that we determined the valid position to take. Why would this be the case for every piece of human discovery, but not for god?

    I think your objection boil down to a reliance on the need for method so maybe we'll focus on that? If method can't be shown to be necessary then all the above falls.
    But we can recognise why we assert confidence on things. God may be the ultimate source, but we still (in our own eyes) gain confidence from sources like reliability, verifiability or bias reinforcement. Every single means we use, and every single subject we use it on, can be evaluated in terms of whether or not the confidence we get is true or false confidence. That is how we can say if one means is better than another.


    This particular means of revelation (empiricism) consists of components working together the output of which ultimately, is confidence. The need for a why? along the ways but one of the components of this particular means. It's there because fallibility of senses is a component of the means called empiricism

    But there is no reason why all means utilized by God need consist of 'fallible senses'. If if no fallible senses then no why is required. The question just wouldn't arise should God go that route.


    [God acts] > [means (including fallible senses)] > [confidence in you].

    Ultimately it boils down to God's act instilling confidence


    And the conviction of the mosquito causes the spread of malaria, a disease which has killed more people than any war humans have waged on each other. Conviction is not an indicator of veracity, benevolence or betterment.

    But it is of use to other people. They say.


    But our pride is based on our confidence, which is god given.

    Our pride is based on our sin. Unless you can circumnavigate some of the problems facing you, then bow you must :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 19,218 ✭✭✭✭Bannasidhe



    You are reliant on God to prove God empirically.



    There is no God.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 3,612 ✭✭✭Lelantos


    Bannasidhe wrote: »

    There is no God.
    Ah you'll just upset him now, say 2 decades of the rosary & he'll forgive you :D


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 19,218 ✭✭✭✭Bannasidhe


    Lelantos wrote: »
    Ah you'll just upset him now, say 2 decades of the rosary & he'll forgive you :D

    I could say the rosary for 2 decades and still not change my statement. :cool:


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Indeed. Ergo, the potential exists that he ranks Revelation over empiricism.

    The potential exists for God to do anything, by definition. But again he hasn't, so it is a moot point.
    By definition, God is the one who decides what is primary and what is secondary. And when what means is primary and when it is secondary.

    Correct, which is why it is odd that you are arguing against what God has already revealed to us.
    I haven't said it's not important (and I don't want to divert into harmony of revelation). Because God controls all forms of revelation, it's for him to decide with is primary.

    Again correct, so why are you arguing that? You know better than God?
    Argument to support the assertion?

    Er, if God exists then God isn't wrong. That should be a strong enough argument for you.
    You are diverting from it: you've been insisting that our evaluation (by method) is absolutely necessary in order to be confident our knowledge is indeed knowledge.

    I'm not asserting that, God is. And you seem to be insisting on arguing against God under the grounds that God could do something else.

    God - I did this
    You - Ah but you could have done something else
    God - Yeah but I didn't
    You - Ah but you could have
    God - But I didn't ...
    You - Ah but
    etc
    Free will isn't being compromised by God taking the step to reveal himself by revelation, so long as our free will pulled the trigger (as it were) on his deciding to act. Unexpected consequences of a free willed action don't confound the free willed nature of the action.

    You are missing the point. I'm discussing how we are, how God made us, how God has revealed us to be.

    You are arguing about how we might have been if God had made us differently and arguing that he could have done that because he is God and can do anything.

    All that is true, but he didn't. We aren't robots. We think about how we think.
    But what we're trying to establish is why your view holds sway since it says what is (rather than my view, which says what can be).

    Because God decides what is, not you. You can ponder what might have been, but that doesn't do anything.
    And what's preventing God doing otherwise.

    I don't know, why does God do anything?
    I'm not discarding general revelation.

    What you do or don't do has some what limited effect on reality, I'm sure you would admit :)
    I'm saying that that's how empiricism works now.

    God could alter the workings of it so that we could have 100% confidence through empirical means (by giving us infallible senses for example).

    That would require God to lie. That doesn't seem to fit the Christian description of God, but then since when has the Christian description of God ever forced God to be anything.
    What lie would God have had to have told in creation were he to demonstrate his existence to a person through revelation? Bear in mind that creation is understood tentatively and so the 'lie' needn't necessarily be a lie, it could be a failure to correctly read the revelation of creation on our part.

    We cannot fail to read the revelation of creation correct if God chooses otherwise.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    Let me add "...we see today" to "..Western Society". And let me underline "a" in " a fundamental pillar"


    Does that help?

    Ah, so you can be coaxed out of your stall? :p

    Let's add your modifications, shall we?
    Originally Posted by antiskeptic viewpost.gif
    ......

    Directly I agree. But would point out that the conviction of those who've met God thus has caused the spread of Christianity - which has been a fundamental piller in bringing about Western society we see today.

    ......
    Nope, it's still pretty much nonsense: contemporary Western society has not come about because of the conviction of those who have met God.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    Zombrex wrote: »
    I'm not asserting that, God is. And you seem to be insisting on arguing against God under the grounds that God could do something else.

    God - I did this
    You - Ah but you could have done something else
    God - Yeah but I didn't
    You - Ah but you could have
    God - But I didn't ...
    You - Ah but
    etc

    If I might step in at line 1?

    You say: "God says I did this" based on what he has revealed to you.

    I say "God says I did this and this" based on what he has revealed to me

    I can't prove to you that God said "..and this" which is why I pose but the potential for you in argument. But potential is sufficient for my purposes so I'm not too worried


    You are missing the point. I'm discussing how we are, how God made us, how God has revealed us to be.

    You are arguing about how we might have been if God had made us differently and arguing that he could have done that because he is God and can do anything.

    Is it clearer from the above? Your claim as to how Goddidit vs my claim. With the problem lying either in my being wrong or your not being able to detect.

    Which brings stalemate. Which essentially what the argument at post 19 does (if I don't know which ways God could reveal himself then I need be open to all ways God might reveal himself)


    I don't know, why does God do anything?

    It's not why he does it it's what prevents him doing it. I take your answer to be ' nothing'


    What you do or don't do has some what limited effect on reality, I'm sure you would admit :)

    Sure. But the point had to do with my not discarding general revelation. Which you now accept?


    That would require God to lie.

    What would? Giving us infallible empirical senses?


    We cannot fail to read the revelation of creation correct if God chooses otherwise.

    There was a question there for you to answer. And I'm not sure if what you say above makes sense - could you check?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 12,169 ✭✭✭✭PopePalpatine


    Archaeological and historical evidence that the bible is literal ?
    pauldla wrote: »
    Nope, it's still pretty much nonsense: contemporary Western society has not come about because of the conviction of those who have met God.

    I'm just wondering if there's a line in the Bible which references democracy and free speech. Those two seem to be key parts of contempory Western society.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,851 ✭✭✭Mark Hamill


    a) We're not concerned what others think

    b) See above

    a) we are, if we want confidence in what we claim.
    b) You are ignoring the problem of false confidence, the confidence (god given, if you wish) that people have in things that are wrong. The only way to eliminate to possibility of false confidence is independent confirmation through impersonal means.
    That would be perfectly understandable had you not had personal revelation from God. I know plenty that do and whilst there is all sorts of disagreement about theological points there isn't about God's existence. We know we know.

    You are ignoring those whose contradictory revelations have given them contradictory doctrine (sufficient to send them to hell under your beliefs) and contradictory notions of gods. The Hindu notion of gods is not just a few theological points away from the christian notion of god, they are fundamentally different. Even the islam notion of god (generally an impersonal, very inhuman being) is fundamentally different to christian notion of god. Which leads to the question of why? Why would god, should there exist one single god who is the source of all true and false confidence, force people to be confident in contradictory gods and doctrine?
    Technically it's your spirit he interfaces with but no matter..

    Your brain wouldn't be anymore compromised than had it been altered by empirical evidence (your sense of confidence, reliability being but an arrangement of the neural network)

    God stands at the root of all the brain alteration - which underlines the irrelevancy of 'means whereby'

    Thanks for bringing that point up!

    It would have been compromised because the means is important, despite your claims to the contrary. I require a line of impersonal logic to achieve confidence (regardless of where it comes from) in something, hence I have confidence in empirical means. This is part of who I am. I can change naturally over time, but that requires natural stepwise changes in my personality (and ultimately, who I change to would not be me anymore). To have sudden confidence in personal means would require a sudden fundamental change in my brain.
    By now the problems are mounting:

    1) Means are irrelevant since God lies behind them all

    2) Knowledge is but an alignment of neural networks. How they are aligned by God is irrelevant

    3) That there are 100,000 religions added to the world everyday has no bearing on God realigning your neural network.

    1) They are relevant. God, should one exist, is also behind all religions (religion being the means to get into heaven). Despite giving people 100% confidence in different religions (means), its only with the right one that you can get into heaven. Therefore god gives value to means, regardless of confidence people have in them.
    2) No, knowledge is not an alignment of neural networks, belief (confidence) is. And given that god gives us belief (confidence) in things that are wrong, it is important to determine the means of that confidence, as some means are more reliable than others, as demonstrated in every piece of human discovery and invention.
    3) It does, because each of those who receive revelation of any of those 100,000 religions has 100% confidence in their revelation too. YOu can't all be true, so how does any of them, or you, know that god has aligned your neural network to the truth?
    "means" are irrelevant.

    You keep saying this without backing it up. God doesn't give weight to means, he makes people give weight to means, and he makes people give differing weight to the same means. Meaning the weight one person attaches to a means is of no use whatsoever to determine its veracity. We need to examine means other ways.
    I think your objection boil down to a reliance on the need for method so maybe we'll focus on that? If method can't be shown to be necessary then all the above falls.

    Do you mean "scientific method" when you say "method"? If so, the answer is yes. Ever piece of human discovery and invention is reliant of that method, that impersonal means, for verification and reliable application. Why would god make that the case for everything we do, but not god himself? Why would he punish us for forcing us, to the point of death and destruction, to rely on something that he doesn't want use on him? Why the massive inconsistency?
    But there is no reason why all means utilized by God need consist of 'fallible senses'. If if no fallible senses then no why is required. The question just wouldn't arise should God go that route.

    There is no route without the problem of fallible senses. Any route that god uses still ultimately acts on a person through their senses. And given that different people have contradictory personal revelations, it must be possible for any of the senses involved in revelations to be fallible. God may have omnipotently and perfectly sent a revelation to you, but you are a fallible human.
    But it is of use to other people. They say.

    Conviction is very useful when you want to have a war.
    Our pride is based on our sin. Unless you can circumnavigate some of the problems facing you, then bow you must :)

    Pride may be a sin, but it is based on over-confidence. You are only proud of something you have confidence in. The rest of that paragraph stands:
    Therefore our current pride is exactly as god intends, meaning we do not need to bow, for to do so would be to reject confidence that god had given us already.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    My last post to you began with the quoted section below. It reaches back beyond the confidence you get from other humans (and all the other elements that go to make up the means (designed by God) known as empiricism) to the source of that confidence.
    And who made it so that all these links would result in confidence? God. SO why are you confident, ultimately? Because God made it so. You are reliant on God to prove God empirically.

    You didn't deal with this but may do in your post. Until you do, successfully, it remains the position.


    -


    a) we are, if we want confidence in what we claim.

    Only when the means is designed to provide confidence utilising others. If not required by design then not required. Your error is to project the needs inherent in empiricism onto all possible means - which you have no basis for doing.

    b) You are ignoring the problem of false confidence, the confidence (god given, if you wish) that people have in things that are wrong. The only way to eliminate to possibility of false confidence is independent confirmation through impersonal means.

    The question here is of equivalence. Equivalence, in the sense that confidence-quotient is attached by God to the means, and is not intrinsic to the means.

    If God didn't make it so that independent confirmation provided more confidence to you then more confidence you would not have on account of independent confirmation. I'd point you to the bolded section at the head of this post again.

    False confidence isn't of God and so is not a means used by God. Your conflating two different things.



    Which leads to the question of why? Why would god, should there exist one single god who is the source of all true and false confidence, force people to be confident in contradictory gods and doctrine?

    God isn't the source of false confidence. People are. They are permitted to fashion a god in their own image and likeness and suppress truth about their inner knowledge of God (whether they identify him as the God of the Bible or not). The motivation is to hold God out of the equation so that they can live their lives as they wish. For example: although there are plenty of Roman Catholics who know God exists, there are many who adopted him, stood near the door of the church so that they could first down the pub after service. Their happy to let the Church do the heavy lifting when it comes to their afterlife destination.

    People can have confidence alright, but it's a confidence that is sourced primarily in a suppression of truth and an attempt to steer clear of God. Which renders it not God-issued confidence

    You don't have to believe this and it's not central to the argument, I'm just giving you the theological background when it comes to the biblical God assumed to exist for the purposes of discussion.


    It would have been compromised because the means is important, despite your claims to the contrary. I require a line of impersonal logic to achieve confidence (regardless of where it comes from) in something, hence I have confidence in empirical means.

    Your requirement is a component of the means. Confidence is the destination or output of the means. That both means and end find place in you is no more a problem than the fact it is your eyes that pick up the data and in so doing are also part of the means.

    This is part of who I am. I can change naturally over time, but that requires natural stepwise changes in my personality (and ultimately, who I change to would not be me anymore). To have sudden confidence in personal means would require a sudden fundamental change in my brain.

    Why only natural? Why not supernatural. And why slow instead of instant?



    1) They are relevant. God, should one exist, is also behind all religions (religion being the means to get into heaven).

    See earlier: false gods are peoples creations.
    Despite giving people 100% confidence in different religions (means), its only with the right one that you can get into heaven. Therefore god gives value to means, regardless of confidence people have in them.

    See earlier: God doesn't give people confidence in false gods. He gives them the ability to generate false gods using suppression of truth. You remember that saying from "An Inconvenient Truth" (the Al Gore eco movie)

    "It's hard to get a man to believe something when his livelihood depends on him not believing it"

    So it is with freedom from God. Man will express all the confidence in the world in his god in order that it sustain him from having to deal with God. Proudful resistance isn't legitimate confidence.

    Bear in mind too (it's a larger discussion) that not all worshipping of false gods is worshipping of false gods. People can be genuinely seeking God and what he stands for but erroneously suppose the cultural image they've been exposed to to respresent what it is they seek. As you know, a la carteism is rampant - meaning folk might well not be worshipping contradictory (to God) aspects of the false god.

    2) No, knowledge is not an alignment of neural networks,

    It's not! Where else does it exist but in neural networks?
    belief (confidence) is. And given that god gives us belief (confidence) in things that are wrong, it is important to determine the means of that confidence, as some means are more reliable than others, as demonstrated in every piece of human discovery and invention.

    God doesn't give us confidence in wrong things. In empiricism he gives us a means whereby our confidence can be improved (but is never 100%) by referring to others.

    In so far as we play by the rules of empiricism (knowingly or not) our confidence is correctly placed and is thus, God provided. In so far as we make leaps and improper assumptions (knowingly or unknowingly) the confidence is self-generated.

    It does, because each of those who receive revelation of any of those 100,000 religions has 100% confidence in their revelation too. YOu can't all be true, so how does any of them, or you, know that god has aligned your neural network to the truth?

    Again, see earlier. Folk aren't receiving revelation of false religions from God. And so conflation between that which is of God and that which isn't of God.



    You keep saying this without backing it up. God doesn't give weight to means, he makes people give weight to means, and he makes people give differing weight to the same means. Meaning the weight one person attaches to a means is of no use whatsoever to determine its veracity. We need to examine means other ways.

    I'm not quite sure how you can skip God's ultimate role in assigning weight to a means (whatever about the route taken through people).

    Imagine if he didn't make people so. How much weight would the means have then? None! Indeed, it wouldn't be a means anymore because a means without end isn't a means.

    Do you mean "scientific method" when you say "method"? If so, the answer is yes.

    I didn't mean scientific method. I meant "method required in order to know God exists (whether scientific, reasoning)" It assumed to be required but I'm not quite sure how that would be shown. It's making quite a leap into what God is constrained to doing.

    Ever piece of human discovery and invention is reliant of that method,

    That's a philosophy of science many scientists wouldn't even agree with.


    There is no route without the problem of fallible senses. Any route that god uses still ultimately acts on a person through their senses. And given that different people have contradictory personal revelations, it must be possible for any of the senses involved in revelations to be fallible. God may have omnipotently and perfectly sent a revelation to you, but you are a fallible human.

    Can God instill in me a new sense. One that is infallible?


    Pride may be a sin, but it is based on over-confidence. You are only proud of something you have confidence in.

    Skipping a queue is pride. I don't think it's confidence that supposes that your needs trump others needs. But if it did involve confidence then God didn't give it confidence: sin did.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    You say: "God says I did this" based on what he has revealed to you.

    To us
    I say "God says I did this and this" based on what he has revealed to me

    I can't prove to you that God said "..and this" which is why I pose but the potential for you in argument. But potential is sufficient for my purposes so I'm not too worried

    What are your "purposes"? You are happy imagining something God might do but hasn't?
    Which brings stalemate.

    Well no, given that if what you believe were true, rather than simply a possibility, it would result in a God that lies, in which case you cannot be confident in what God reveals to you, even if you suppose it is what God is revealing to you.

    If you are merely supposing that he can do this, not that he did, then there is no stalemate either, since I agreed with that ages back.

    The issue only arises if you move from "This is possible" to "This happened". You seem rather non-committal as to whether you are doing that or not.
    It's not why he does it it's what prevents him doing it.

    By definition God cannot be prevented from doing anything, correct?
    Sure. But the point had to do with my not discarding general revelation. Which you now accept?

    You must either discard the general revelation to have confidence in the personal revelation. But then discarding the general revelation is nonsensical, which you seem to accept.

    So you are left with two possibilities, a God that lies (in which case no revelation can be trusted as to its truth value), or you have mistaken the personal revelation.

    Both result in the personal revelation being discarded, so we are back at square one.

    Or to put it another way, in the universe we exist in you cannot trust what you consider to be personal revelations from God, no matter whether you purpose God exists or not.

    This is a point I made a while ago, that supposing starting axioms as to what God can or cannot do doesn't change the outcome.
    What would? Giving us infallible empirical senses?

    Personal revelation.
    There was a question there for you to answer. And I'm not sure if what you say above makes sense - could you check?

    I checked. It makes sense. If God wishes that we understand his main revelation then we will.


  • Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 24,466 Mod ✭✭✭✭robindch


    Zombrex wrote: »
    This is a point I made a while ago, that supposing starting axioms as to what God can or cannot do doesn't change the outcome.
    What I'd like to know is what happens if the deity changes the starting axioms after they've been decided -- does this invalidate the conclusion of belief, or is it just another thing that the deity does or might do for no other reason than the deity can do it? Or what happens if the deity changes the rules by which axioms turn into conclusions?

    And more generally, how should one develop and sustain a view of the moral value of a belief in some deity or other, if the same deity is the entity who creates the conditions under which belief will flourish or not in the first place? ie, whatever about the view such a deity might have about the belief professed and the worth of such a belief within the (variable?) axiomatic system enacted, how should a believer himself/herself view his/her own belief?

    I don't believe those points have been addressed properly yet.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,851 ✭✭✭Mark Hamill


    All your points about god not being the source of false confidence all get the same response from me, so to save space I'll just quote one first and give one response:
    God doesn't give people confidence in false gods. He gives them the ability to generate false gods using suppression of truth.

    We cannot get true confidence in anything from any other source but God. Meaning there is nothing humans can do, by ourselves, to ensure we believe the truth. This means that 100% false confidence (confidence in something false) is entirely the result of god not giving us 100% confidence in the truth (because if we were 100% confident in something we would never act against it). We might make up false ideas but we only achieve 100% confidence in them if god actively allows us to.

    Which begs the question of why does God punish us for his inaction? We can't achieve 100% confidence in the truth if he doesn't make us 100% confident in the truth.
    My last post to you began with the quoted section below. It reaches back beyond the confidence you get from other humans (and all the other elements that go to make up the means (designed by God) known as empiricism) to the source of that confidence.

    You didn't deal with this but may do in your post. Until you do, successfully, it remains the position.

    In your last post you answered one section with an a) and a b), where b) refereed back to the first paragraph (that I didn't quote, to keep the post short). My response to b) was the response to that paragraph. Sorry if that wasn't clear.
    Only when the means is designed to provide confidence utilising others. If not required by design then not required. Your error is to project the needs inherent in empiricism onto all possible means - which you have no basis for doing.

    I do have a basis - all human discovery and invention. Why would god arbitrarily decide that one subject (his existence) is somehow reliably invested by a means that we are at pains to avoid in every other subject?
    If God didn't make it so that independent confirmation provided more confidence to you then more confidence you would not have on account of independent confirmation.

    This is redundant, because he did make it that independent confirmation provided more confidence to me.
    Why only natural? Why not supernatural. And why slow instead of instant?

    Because humans are natural creatures and our minds grow and change (but still are our minds) through slow (relative to supernatural) means. You can force a change through alternative means, by god forcing confidence on you despite your desired means not being satisfied, or by a human drugging you up to your eyeballs, but both of these represent a compromising of your brain and your normal decision making processes.
    Bear in mind too (it's a larger discussion) that not all worshipping of false gods is worshipping of false gods. People can be genuinely seeking God and what he stands for but erroneously suppose the cultural image they've been exposed to to respresent what it is they seek. As you know, a la carteism is rampant - meaning folk might well not be worshipping contradictory (to God) aspects of the false god.

    If a la carteism didn't amount to blasphemous behaviour then it wouldn't deign a label. A la carte theists are going to hell just as much as atheists, should nearly any specific human religion be true (as nearly no human religion allows for a la carteism with respect to gods commandments). Very few are passively a la carte (somewhat wrong, but not at all aware of it), most actively reject the parts they don't like because of a false confidence that god acts according to what they want. A false confidence they have because god will not give them a true confidence.
    It's not! Where else does it exist but in neural networks?

    Sorry, for some reason I read "knowledge" as "the truth".
    God doesn't give us confidence in wrong things. In empiricism he gives us a means whereby our confidence can be improved (but is never 100%) by referring to others.

    In so far as we play by the rules of empiricism (knowingly or not) our confidence is correctly placed and is thus, God provided. In so far as we make leaps and improper assumptions (knowingly or unknowingly) the confidence is self-generated.

    I've already dealt with god giving wrong confidence, but as to the other point, ask yourself this: What does empiricism improve our confidence over? What is it that people do that leads them from correctly confident empiricism to incorrectly confident leaps and improper assumptions? What are these leaps and assumptions if not personal revelations?
    Again, see earlier. Folk aren't receiving revelation of false religions from God. And so conflation between that which is of God and that which isn't of God.

    It doesn't really matter where people receive the confidence, the confidence in something that is true (god given) and the confidence in something false (human created) are completely indistinguishable from both the receiver of the confidence and any impartial observer. Even if god makes a falsely confident person truly confident (ie confident in the real gods existence), they cant tell if their new confidence is actually real, it the same sort and strength of confidence they had before, just in another subject. And it can change again to something equally convincing.
    I'm not quite sure how you can skip God's ultimate role in assigning weight to a means (whatever about the route taken through people).

    I'm not ignoring gods role, its actually because of gods role that we have to make means impersonal. Because god allows means to be so unreliable, by allowing people to think that confidence by itself is the same as accuracy, by giving different amounts of confidence to different people, by never giving some people to get the confidence they should, we need to weigh means according to their ability to reduce that effect as much as possible.
    Imagine if he didn't make people so. How much weight would the means have then? None! Indeed, it wouldn't be a means anymore because a means without end isn't a means.

    But a) he did and b) even if he didn't make people so, means would still have weight, just weight devised by people (ideally) according to reliability, rather than useless god given confidence (useless because its indistinguishable from human sourced false confidence).
    I didn't mean scientific method. I meant "method required in order to know God exists (whether scientific, reasoning)" It assumed to be required but I'm not quite sure how that would be shown. It's making quite a leap into what God is constrained to doing.

    So by "method" you just mean any act on the part of the person? You are saying that god can give confidence to people without any act require on their behalf at all?
    That's a philosophy of science many scientists wouldn't even agree with.

    Well, when you selectively ignore half the sentence, then I'm sure some would disagree (although I would still disagree with them). What about the rest of the questions, even in light of what you meant by "method"? Why would god have us at pains to create and work according to some method in order to do or understand anything else, but not himself? Its not even like god is the only thing that people can decide they spontaneously know.
    Can God instill in me a new sense. One that is infallible?

    I dont see how he could, not without making you god (infallibility being an inherent property of god and all). Given that you are the one who actually believes in god (and has had revelation) maybe thats a question you should answer yourself?
    Skipping a queue is pride. I don't think it's confidence that supposes that your needs trump others needs. But if it did involve confidence then God didn't give it confidence: sin did.

    Of course its confidence that supposes your need trumps others, you skip the queue because you are confident that your need trumps others. That confidence may be justified (its an emergency) or not (your self important), but its still confidence based. And confidence is the underlying reason behind all acts. We only do what we have most confidence in. We sin if god allow to be confident in our sinning.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    Zombrex wrote: »

    1)To us


    2) What are your "purposes"? You are happy imagining something God might do but hasn't?


    3) Well no, given that if what you believe were true, rather than simply a possibility, it would result in a God that lies, in which case you cannot be confident in what God reveals to you, even if you suppose it is what God is revealing to you.

    4) If you are merely supposing that he can do this, not that he did, then there is no stalemate either, since I agreed with that ages back.

    5) The issue only arises if you move from "This is possible" to "This happened". You seem rather non-committal as to whether you are doing that or not.

    From the top:

    1) If he has revealed more to me then it is 'you' not 'us'. I can't demonstrate he has, you can't demonstrate he hasn't - or at least we need to clarify what your claim that he hasn't rests upon.

    2) You say he hasn't, I say he has - the above applies here again

    3) Your basis for holding he hasn't rests on him having to having to have lied (which I agree he can't have done). We therefore need the lie which you'll have provided argument for later .. I'm guessing.

    4) If you agree he could do it then then argument at posts 19 holds. Unless you can show he hasn't or provide some other objection.

    5) The argument at post 19 doesn't require it to have happened. I only say it has to stalemate your claim that it hasn't happened. Which leaves the ball in your court - no support for 'it hasn't' and the argument at 19 stands (unless you can find other ways around it)

    By definition God cannot be prevented from doing anything, correct?

    God cannot be illogical. He cannot lie etc. You could say he hasn't if it were illogical for him to do it or would involve a lie to do it, etc.

    You must either discard the general revelation to have confidence in the personal revelation. But then discarding the general revelation is nonsensical, which you seem to accept.

    So you are left with two possibilities, a God that lies (in which case no revelation can be trusted as to its truth value), or you have mistaken the personal revelation.


    I've asked a couple of times and from the above you can see your position hinges on it. What lie would God have had to have told given that I don't discard the general revelation? Here's what I said before:

    "What lie would God have had to have told in creation were he to demonstrate his existence to a person through revelation? Bear in mind that creation is understood tentatively and so the 'lie' needn't necessarily be a lie, it could be a failure to correctly read the revelation of creation on our part."


    I checked. It makes sense. If God wishes that we understand his main revelation then we will.

    Okay - but in order to circumvent the potential for error he would have to alter the means since that's not the way it works now. You'd have Super-Empiricism or some such. You didn't respond to the question posed by your statement here so I've repeated it above.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    1) If he has revealed more to me then it is 'you' not 'us'. I can't demonstrate he has, you can't demonstrate he hasn't - or at least we need to clarify what your claim that he hasn't rests upon.

    2) You say he hasn't, I say he has - the above applies here again

    3) Your basis for holding he hasn't rests on him having to having to have lied (which I agree he can't have done). We therefore need the lie which you'll have provided argument for later .. I'm guessing.

    No, you are missing the point. There is no need to demonstrate he hasn't done anything, since all scenarios of him doing something or not doing something result in the same out come.

    God doesn't exist - There is no God so you cannot trust the revelation.
    God does exist and hasn't revealed to you - You cannot trust the revelation as it does not come from God.
    God does exist and revealed to you - He lies, you cannot trust the revelation.
    4) If you agree he could do it then then argument at posts 19 holds. Unless you can show he hasn't or provide some other objection.

    No. Firstly just because he could doesn't mean he has (which results in the 2nd scenario, and you being unable to trust the revelation), and even if he has this results in the 3rd scenario and you are unable to trust the revelation.
    God cannot be illogical. He cannot lie etc.

    Well it is not really relevant to the point, but who says he cannot lie? Of course he can lie, he is the omnipotent creator of the universe. What would stop him from lying?

    Saying he cannot lie is again just Christian assertion, modelling this supposed being on what you find emotionally pleasing. It would be easier for you if he couldn't lie, but that has nothing to do with reality.
    Bear in mind that creation is understood tentatively and so the 'lie' needn't necessarily be a lie, it could be a failure to correctly read the revelation of creation on our part."

    God decides if we fail to correctly read revelation or not, not you. Asserting we have simply to make your position more tenable again has no effect on reality.
    Okay - but in order to circumvent the potential for error he would have to alter the means since that's not the way it works now.

    Only if creation was personal revelation. It isn't so it is a moot point. Creation is God's central revelation. It is, by definition, flawless. Saying there is something wrong with it is nonsensical.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,550 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    None of the above, and even if its proved he exists, I'll still be rejecting him
    God doesn't exist[/B - There is no God so you cannot trust the revelation.
    God does exist and hasn't revealed to you - You cannot trust the revelation as it does not come from God.
    God does exist and revealed to you - He lies, you cannot trust the revelation.

    What about the option that he exists and doesn't lie? And if he doesn't require methodical means to impart knowledge, then he can impart knowledge of the fact he doesn't lie also. That we can't know that God isn't lying about is not lying is brain in jar territory.

    Zombrex wrote: »
    God does exist and revealed to you - He lies, you cannot trust the revelation.

    As ever, I await what the lie God would have had to have told is. Are you actually going to get around to saying what it might be. Your position hinges on it.

    Saying he cannot lie is again just Christian assertion, modelling this supposed being on what you find emotionally pleasing. It would be easier for you if he couldn't lie, but that has nothing to do with reality.

    The argument at post 19 is addressed (and has been announced at being addressed numerous times) at those who suppose that God could (in principle) demonstrate himself empirically. If he can lie via revelation then he can lie via empiricism. In which case you're not one who supposes God can demonstrate himself empirically.

    And so don't belong in the discussion. Best get your brain back to it's jar :)

    God decides if we fail to correctly read revelation or not, not you. Asserting we have simply to make your position more tenable again has no effect on reality.

    I'm not asserting you have read general revelation incorrectly. I'm pointing out that the evidence of your own and everyone else's eyes demands you include the possibility that you have done so. In which case your contention that God has to have lied in Revelation (given, presumably, that you hold it contradicting what general revelation reveals) flounders.

    You can't say "God hasn't" when it could very well be people coming to erroneous conclusions in their reading comprehension.
    Only if creation was personal revelation. It isn't so it is a moot point.

    General revelation available to many doesn't mean the combined reading of it hits the nail on the head. Or comes anyway close when it concerns the issue of God's existence or no.

    Creation is God's central revelation. It is, by definition, flawless. Saying there is something wrong with it is nonsensical.

    In summary:

    a) What is your argument that Creation is God's central revelation (about revealing his existence). If reverting to previously presented arguments such as ' "he hasn't" then ignore this question and answer the objections already made to those responses.

    a) Could you tell me what the lie God must have told is.

    b) Whilst God's revelation through Creation might be flawless (he exists and doesn't lie?) it says says nothing about the ability of folk to correctly read what he is revealing. Empiricism tells us about the ability of folk to incorrectly read - even if they improve the odds by huddling up and sharing observations


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 9,193 ✭✭✭[Jackass]


    Archaeological and historical evidence that the bible is literal ?
    Whilst the poll is a bit difficult to choose something that would prove God exists, I chose scientific and physical evidence.

    Having said that, even that would not prove God, at least no more than a child putting a tooth under their pillow and finding a euro there in the morning is proof of the tooth fairy in the childs eyes.

    The main thing religious people can't understand about science is that not only is science often wrong, but the whole purpose of science is to attempt to disprove what we believe to be fact.

    The scientific way of looking at the question is what would disprove God, and the beauty of that is that you can't disprove something so far fetched. No matter how much we trace back the universe, religion is the easy answer to everything we can't answer yet.

    If we proved several dimensions and we proved multiple universes and proved multiple intelligent life forms, well....who made them?

    Religion is something that will gradually die on its own. We must remember that in the history of humanity, organised religion has only existed for about 1% of that time, and will probably be gone within the next 1% (i.e. the next 1,000 years or so).


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    What about the option that he doesn't lie?
    That is option 2.
    And if he doesn't require means to impart knowledge, then he can impart knowledge of the fact he doesn't lie also. You seem to be entering brain in jar territory.

    Hey, you are the one arguing for confidence from personal revelation. You got yourself into this mess. I've no issue with a God that lies, all that means is that you cannot have confidence in what you are told by him. But then other than emotional reasons why would you need to?
    As ever, we await what the lie God would have had to have told. Are you actually going to get around to saying what it might be. Your position hinges on it.

    I've already explained it many times, so I can only guess you aren't listening. The creation revelation, God's primary revelation, reveals to us not only how humans are but how God has decided they are. To then reveal to you information contradictory to this initial revelation would contradict the first revelation, producing a God that lies.
    Ahem: the argument is addressed (and has been announced at being addressed numerous times) at those who suppose that God could (in principle) demonstrate himself empirically. If he can lie via revelation then he can lie via empiricism. In which case you're not one who supposes God can demonstrate himself empirically.

    I don't understand what you mean here, but if you are suggesting that we as atheists have a problem with a God that lies you are very mistaken. In fact this point has been addressed many times, most recently by myself who pointed out that there is no observable difference between a omnipotent being being as they truly are and an omnipotent being pretending to be something else (ie Satan pretending to be God).

    But then again you are the one arguing that we can have confidence in revelations from God, not me.
    I'm not asserting you have read general revelation incorrectly. I'm pointing that that empiricism demands you include the possibility that you have done so. In which case your contention that God has to have lied in Revelation (given, presumably, that it contradicts what general revelation reveals) flounders.

    Why are you appealing to what empiricism demands? God is the source, not empiricism. It is what God demands which is important.
    You can't say "God hasn't" when it could very well be people coming to erroneous conclusions in their reading comprehension.

    God (if he exists) is the source of all knowledge and all confidence in knowledge. Appealing to the frailty of man in order to contradict God's revelation is nonsensical.
    General revelation available to many doesn't mean the combined reading of it hits the nail on the head.

    You don't decide that, God does.
    a) What is your argument that Creation is God's central revelation (about revealing his existence). If reverting to previously presented arguments such as ' he hasn't' then ignore this question and answer the objections to those where made.

    That is like asking what is your argument that 1 is 1. Creation is, by definition, God's main action in relation to us, and since any action of God is a revelation, it is his main revelation.
    b) Whilst God's revelation through Creation might be flawless (are you assuming he doesn't lie?)

    It is nonsensical to imply that creation is a lie, since truth itself is defined as being the true nature of reality which will be, by definition, creation.

    If God then imparts knowledge to you counter to creation that knowledge will be a lie as it does not match up with creation.
    it says says nothing about the ability of folk to correctly read what he is revealing. Empiricism tells us about the ability of folk to correctly read - even if they improve the odds by huddling up and sharing observations

    Again you put empiricism ahead of God? Why exactly?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 31,967 ✭✭✭✭Sarky


    Archaeological and historical evidence that the bible is literal ?
    But but but but GOD!


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Sarky wrote: »
    But but but but GOD!

    Pretty much


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 19,218 ✭✭✭✭Bannasidhe


    Sarky wrote: »
    But but but but GOD!

    But me no Buts - there is NO God.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 31,967 ✭✭✭✭Sarky


    Archaeological and historical evidence that the bible is literal ?
    But GOD!


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 19,218 ✭✭✭✭Bannasidhe


    Sarky wrote: »
    But GOD!

    JUST SAY NO.


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