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A bee and train question I'm trying to figure...

  • 19-01-2011 12:43am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭


    A bee is flying east at 10kmh and gets squished by train going west at 100kmh,

    Now what I am trying to figure is the squished bee goes from 10kmh going east to 100kmh going west very quickly.

    So the velocity of the bee goes 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh

    So in changing direction from east to west the squished bee must have a velocity of zero at some stage? So the squished bee is stuck to the train...so the train must have a velocity of zero at some stage?

    So the bee stops the train for a fraction of a second? If so how long does the bee stop the train for?






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Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    The bee hits the train and Newton's Third tells us that the train hits the bee with an equal and opposite Force. Although, it's called an action-reaction pair, this term is really a misnomer.

    It is not as if the bee hit the train and then the train decided to retaliate and hit the bee back. There really is no action and then a reaction. The two Forces occur simultaneously.

    So the bee hits the train just as hard as the train hits the bee. Most people think that the train hits the bee harder, which is why the bee is squished, not so.

    Also, which undergoes the greater change in momentum? Neither, they both experience the same change in momentum. The massive train slows down, at least metaphysically, in its direction of motion and the bee has its direction changed altogether.

    That total momentum of the system before the collision is equal to the total momentum of the system after the collision.

    No, the train never has a velocity of zero.

    The bee will have a speed and velocity of zero for an instant as it changes direction.

    So then why does the bee get annihilated? If the bee hits the train as hard as the train hits the bee, why doesn't the bee stop the train?

    Think about, and then scroll down...
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    Well, the train has a lot of contact with the ground. The train pushes off of the ground with a greater Force than the bee is able to push off of the air. That's why the train pushes the bee back. They still apply equal and opposite Forces on each other during the initial impact though.

    Also, with respect to this quote, there's a problem
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    So the velocity of the bee goes 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh
    The way the problem would normally be posed would be a train in motion without any frictional forces such as air resistance to slow it down. If the train hits the bee, the two stuck together will NOT be able to have the same combined speed as the initial speed of the train, unless, there's an external Force or an internal Energy transformation such as chemical potential energy of fuel transformed (not transferred) into kinetic energy of the center of mass. - Not likely for an Intro course. Point particles have no internals.

    Also, the collision you describe is most definitely not elastic, more likely for an intro course it would be inelastic. Since it is not elastic, kinetic energy is not conserved.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Thanks for the reply FISMA, I agree with all you say there...regarding newton and the train having contact with the earth.

    However, what I can't grasp is this, If the bee has a velocity of zero for an instant...surely the train must have a velocity of zero for an instant...

    With the bee stuck to the window screen of the train...with no loss of its mass. Surely the train must also be stopped for an instant?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    MonkeyDo,
    You should most definitely not believe that the two would have a speed of zero, even for an instant.

    There's a lot of conservation laws in Physics: (a) Energy, (b) Momentum (LCoM), (c) charge, and (d) nucleon number.

    Physicists would prefer that you violate Energy, before you violate momentum - especially angular momentum.

    Anyhow, momentum MUST be conserved for a system like the bee-train-earth system in the absence of external Forces.

    You cannot believe in the LCOM and simultaneously believe that before the collision there was momentum and that at some other time, like during the collision the combined speed of the two was zero - this would imply that momentum was not conserved.

    Why exactly are you holding onto this belief?

    The MASSIVE train slowed down (accelerated) just a little, that's why we cannot perceive it. The small mass of the bee allowed it to be accelerated to a large speed.

    The change in momentum of the bee = change in momentum of the train.

    Newton's second F = ma

    but a = dv/dt

    Thus, F = mdv/dt

    let's hold mass constant and move the "d"

    F = d(mv)/dt

    but momentum, p = mv

    So, F = dp/dt

    That's how Newton put his second law.

    So,
    dp = Fdt = Impulse

    This is why the change in momentum of the bee = the change in momentum of the train. Both contact times (bee hitting train and train hitting bee) are the same. Also, Newton's third tells us both Forces are the same. If F and dt are the same, then it follows that dp, the change in momentum, is also the same.

    Note, impulse does not equal momentum, even though they have the same units. An impulse causes a change in momentum.

    Hope that helped.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Thanks FISMA,

    I see the conservation of momentum holding that the collision would only result in tiny change in velocity of the train and the train/bee combined body. Thinking in terms of momentum this makes total sense mathematically.

    But the Bee must at some stage still have a velocity of zero? As it changes direction

    And at the time it has a velocity of zero it will be stuck to the train,so the train will also have a velocity of zero?

    This is what I am trying to get to grips with...as how can the bee/train not have a velocity of zero at some stage?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,295 ✭✭✭Joe10000


    Of all the insects I have killed whilst driving over the years I cannot recall any of them slowing me down while they changed direction.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Bee goes east at 10kmh....hit by train...Bee goes west at 100kmh....at some stage the Bee must have a velocity of zero. You were stopped for an tiny instant ;-) Just enough time for the insect to go heaven...


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,295 ✭✭✭Joe10000


    No, I wasn't stopped, not even for an instant. The difference in mass is too great to effect the velocity of the bigger one, end of.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    A bee is flying east at 10kmh and gets squished by train going west at 100kmh,

    Now what I am trying to figure is the squished bee goes from 10kmh going east to 100kmh going west very quickly.

    So the velocity of the bee goes 10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh

    So in changing direction from east to west the squished bee must have a velocity of zero at some stage? So the squished bee is stuck to the train...so the train must have a velocity of zero at some stage?

    So the bee stops the train for a fraction of a second? If so how long does the bee stop the train for?





    The bee never stops the train. If the bee stopped the train there would be an instant where the bee is stationary with respect to both the ground and the train. Instead, the bee's centre of mass decelerates, has 0 velocity for an instant with respect to the ground (but not with respect to the train), and accelerates until it is moving with the same velocity as the train (i.e. Stationary with respect to the train, but not the ground).


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    And at the time it has a velocity of zero it will be stuck to the train,so the train will also have a velocity of zero?

    This assumption is the key to the paradox. I have mentioned as much in my previous post, but will emphasise it again here. The bee and the train will only have the same velocity at the same time once the bee has accelerated to 100kph. I.e. if we look at their velocities at successive instants, we see the following:

    Bee: -10,-09 ,-08,-07,-06,-05,-04, -03,-02,-01, 00,01,02,03,04,...,100 kph
    Train:100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,.....,100 kph

    We can see that, when the bee is 0, the train is still moving towards it. So even though the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, it is not stationary with respect to the train. The bee, in otherwords, is being squished against the train.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,155 ✭✭✭SOL


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Bee goes east at 10kmh....hit by train...Bee goes west at 100kmh....at some stage the Bee must have a velocity of zero. You were stopped for an tiny instant ;-) Just enough time for the insect to go heaven...

    But surely if your premise is that when the two are in contact they must have the same speed the instant after they initially collide but we know this model isn't correct because the bee and the train don't have the same speed all the time during the collision, t no point does the train go backwards, so their must be something else going on...


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    SOL wrote: »
    But surely if your premise is that when the two are in contact they must have the same speed the instant after they initially collide but we know this model isn't correct because the bee and the train don't have the same speed all the time during the collision, t no point does the train go backwards, so their must be something else going on...

    "Contact" is an approximation in physics. When you slap your hand on the table, you feel a repulsive force you identify as contact. This repulsive force is due to the electromagnetic force (and something else called exchange correlation which is quantum mechanical, but I won't get into that now) between your hand and the table. So even if we replaced the squish-able bee with some hypothetical perfectly rigid physical object, "contact" would still be an approximation, and at no point during the collision would the object have to be stationary with respect to both the train and the ground.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,149 ✭✭✭ZorbaTehZ


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    So in changing direction from east to west the squished bee must have a velocity of zero at some stage? So the squished bee is stuck to the train...so the train must have a velocity of zero at some stage?

    Why does the bee being at zero imply that the train must be at zero? Those two do not logically follow.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,134 ✭✭✭FarmerGreen


    FISMA wrote: »
    Well, the train has a lot of contact with the ground. The train pushes off of the ground with a greater Force than the bee is able to push off of the air. That's why the train pushes the bee back. They still apply equal and opposite Forces on each other during the initial impact though.

    No.
    Train 80 tons at 100k.
    Bee 5 grams at 10k


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    If measure velocity of bee and train relative to the ground.....the bee will have to have velocity of zero when it is squished to the train. As velocity of bee and train are both relative to ground then surely the train must also have a velocity of zero for an instant.

    v= d / t

    Am I correct in saying the concept of velocity gets tricky when dealing with 'instants' in time. Lets say the instant of a collision?

    That to measure the velocity, two points are required to measure the distance, and two points in time to get a time measurement. So that it is impossible to measure the velocity of something at the 'instant' of collision?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    MonkeyDoo,
    This is starting to take on a metaphysical tone, sounds like Xeno's arrow...

    If the arrow is in motion, we can never know its exact position.

    If we know the exact position, we cannot know its speed.

    Give a read on Xeno's arrow. It is, fundamentally, can be likened to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle - if you know the location of the electron, you cannot know its momentum. If you know its momentum, you cannot know its exact location.

    Physics in Greek means natural - it is the study of the natural world.

    Do you really believe that the train hits a bug and stops, even for an instant? Wouldn't the accelerations required to stop a train for an instant be so large as to kill everyone on board?

    Most definitely, the train does not have a speed or velocity of zero.

    Convince yourself.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    No.
    Train 80 tons at 100k.
    Bee 5 grams at 10k

    "No."

    What exactly do you disagree with?

    From your post it looks as if you are quoting momenta where I was referring to Forces.

    The bee hits the train with the same amount of Force that the train hits the bee.

    Why then does the bee get driven back and the train continues on?

    It is the classic truck hits person and person goes flying - who hit who harder? Neither - the truck hit the person as hard as the person hit the truck.

    Next student type question: if the person hits the truck with the same Force, then how come the person flies away and doesn't stop the truck?

    Well, because the 18 wheels of the truck are able to push off of the ground with a greater force than the feet of the person is able to push the truck.

    If you disagree with this, please elaborate.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Thanks FISMA, the is Xeno's arrow paradox is very helpful in dealing with the 'instant velocity' of zero...I just looked it up on wikipedia

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zeno's_paradoxes

    It seems the solutions to Xeno's/Zenos arrow is that instants do not exist,quote from wiki..

    "all of Zeno's motion paradoxes are resolved by the conclusion that instants in time and instantaneous magnitudes do not actually exist"

    Now if 'instants' don't exist....is this true in physics? Is there a quantity of time that can't be split further but in which objects can move during that time period? If there is no such thing as an instant then suppose my question is flawed.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    The issue is not regarding instants. I have said already that there is never an instant when the train stops. If the train stopped even for an instant then there would have been an infinite deceleration. That is unphysical.

    The issue is the assumption that things in contact must be travelling at the same speed. There is no reason to make this assumption. The bee is in contact with the train, and when the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, the train is moving towards it, squishing it.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    FISMA wrote: »
    MonkeyDoo,
    This is starting to take on a metaphysical tone, sounds like Xeno's arrow...

    If the arrow is in motion, we can never know its exact position.

    If we know the exact position, we cannot know its speed.

    Give a read on Xeno's arrow. It is, fundamentally, Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle - if you know the location of the electron, you cannot know its momentum. If you know its momentum, you cannot know its exact location.

    Physics in Greek means natural - it is the study of the natural world.

    Do you really believe that the train hits a bug and stops, even for an instant? Wouldn't the accelerations required to stop a train for an instant be so large as to kill everyone on board?

    Most definitely, the train does not have a speed or velocity of zero.

    Convince yourself.

    Xeno's arrow has nothing to do with Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. It can be addressed in a purely classical regime.
    Now if 'instants' don't exist....is this true in physics? Is there a quantity of time that can't be split further but in which objects can move during that time period? If there is no such thing as an instant then suppose my question is flawed.

    To understand instants, I would recommend starting with real analysis. I can say a bit about them. But again I have to stress that it has nothing to do with understanding the physics behind the bee and the train.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,649 ✭✭✭b318isp


    Morbert wrote: »
    The issue is not regarding instants. I have said already that there is never an instant when the train stops. If the train stopped even for an instant then there would have been an infinite deceleration. That is unphysical.

    The issue is the assumption that things in contact must be travelling at the same speed. There is no reason to make this assumption. The bee is in contact with the train, and when the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, the train is moving towards it, squishing it.

    Spot on. Parts of the bee will be travelling at different velocities as it compacts also.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    FISMA wrote: »
    Next student type question: if the person hits the truck with the same Force, then how come the person flies away and doesn't stop the truck?

    Well, because the 18 wheels of the truck are able to push off of the ground with a greater force than the feet of the person is able to push the truck.

    If you disagree with this, please elaborate.

    That's not why the person/bee doesn't stop the truck/train. FarmerGreen is correct by stating the momentum of the train is far greater than the momentum of the bee. The law of conservation of momentum tells us the bee cannot stop the train. I.e. For a 2-body inelastic collision (since the bee sticks to the train), there is a single solution to the relation

    m_bee v_bee + m_train v_train = (m_bee + m_train) v'

    So even if the train was flying through space with no surface or substance to push off of, it would still not be stopped by the bee.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Morbert wrote: »
    That's not why the person/bee doesn't stop the truck/train. FarmerGreen is correct by stating the momentum of the train is far greater than the momentum of the bee. The law of conservation of momentum tells us the bee cannot stop the train. I.e. For a 2-body inelastic collision (since the bee sticks to the train), there is a single solution to the relation

    m_bee v_bee + m_train v_train = (m_bee + m_train) v'

    So even if the train was flying through space with no surface or substance to push off of, it would still not be stopped by the bee.

    Hi Mobert,

    The conservation of momentum does not tell us the bee connot stop the train for an instant. As 'velocity' is essentially an average of velocity between too points. It does not in anyway indicate the train did not stop for a moment in time.

    You can drive from dublin to cork and the avg velocity of the car

    v= d/t might be 20kmh but it does not mean the car did not stop during the journey.

    as momentum is a product of mass and velocity(mv) you cannot use it to say the train did not stop at some point. Momentum can of couse be used to calcuate the velocity after the collision.


    I think FISMA was saying the force applied by the bee on the train is equal to the force applied by the train on the bee which seems correct to me according to Newtons 2nd.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Hi Mobert,

    The conservation of momentum does not tell us the bee connot stop the train. As 'velocity' is essentially an average of velocity between too points. It does not in anyway indicate the train did not stop for a moment in time.

    You can drive from dublin to cork and the avg velocity of the car

    v= d/t might be 20kmh but it does not mean the car did not stop during the journey.

    as momentum is a product of mass and velocity(mv) you cannot use it to say the train did not stop at some point.

    If the bee stopped the train, the law of conservation of momentum would be broken.

    My post to FISMA was regarding the additional question: "If the person hits the truck with the same Force, then how come the person flies away and doesn't stop the truck?"

    The answer to this is not that the truck is pushing against the road with greater force. It is that the momentum is conserved.
    I think FISMA was saying the force applied by the bee on the train is equal to the force applied by the train on the bee which seems correct to me according to Newtons 2nd.

    It is Newton's third law.

    Newton's second law is also relevant though: F = ma. The force experienced is the same for both the bee and the train. However, since the trains mass is very large, its acceleration (in this case a deceleration) is negligible. And since the bee's mass is small, its acceleration is large. So the bee goes from -10 kph to 100 kph, and the train stays travelling at 100 kph.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Hi Mobert,

    If the bee's velocity relative to the ground goes from -10kmh to + 100kmh its velocity would at some stage be 0?

    Bees momentum = mv = 0.1kg x 0 = 0

    As the bee is essentially a passenger of the train when its velocity hits zero,the trains velocity must also be 0 relative to the ground

    At the moment the trains momentum is also 100,000kg x 0 = 0

    Momentum is conserved....

    I think the problem comes down to the 'instant' as equations with velocity need a 2 points in time. So Zeno's paradox is relevant to the question?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Hi Mobert,

    If the bee's velocity relative to the ground goes from -10kmh to + 100kmh its velocity would at some stage be 0?

    Bees momentum = mv = 0.1kg x 0 = 0

    As the bee is essentially a passenger of the train when its velocity hits zero,the trains velocity must also be 0 relative to the ground

    At the moment the trains momentum is also 100,000kg x 0 = 0

    Momentum is conserved....

    I think the problem comes down to the 'instant' as equations with velocity need a 2 points in time. So Zeno's paradox is relevant to the question?

    It is the assumption in bold that is causing the confusion.

    To quote my previous messages:
    Morbert wrote:
    The issue is the assumption that things in contact must be travelling at the same speed. There is no reason to make this assumption. The bee is in contact with the train, and when the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, the train is moving towards it, squishing it.
    Morbert wrote:
    the bee's centre of mass decelerates, has 0 velocity for an instant with respect to the ground (but not with respect to the train), and accelerates until it is moving with the same velocity as the train (i.e. Stationary with respect to the train, but not the ground).
    The bee and the train will only have the same velocity at the same time once the bee has accelerated to 100kph. I.e. if we look at their velocities at successive instants, we see the following:

    Bee: -10,-09 ,-08,-07,-06,-05,-04, -03,-02,-01, 00,01,02,03,04,...,100 kph
    Train:100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,.....,100 kph

    We can see that, when the bee is 0, the train is still moving towards it. So even though the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, it is not stationary with respect to the train. The bee, in otherwords, is being squished against the train.

    The bee becomes a passenger of the train once it accelerates to 100kph. Until that happens, the bee and the train are travelling at different velocities.

    And regarding the conservation of momentum: If the bee and the train stopped, even for an instant, then the momentum of the system, as you say, would be 0. Momentum, in other words, would be destroyed, not conserved, for an instant.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,155 ✭✭✭SOL


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    As the bee is essentially a passenger of the train when its velocity hits zero,the trains velocity must also be 0 relative to the ground

    QUOTE]

    Explain this statement?????????


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Hi Mobert,

    You say

    The bee becomes a passenger of the train once it accelerates to 100kph

    Why can't the bee be a passenger when the bee's velocity is zero?

    Why does the bees velocity have to be 100kph before you recognise them as a combined mass?

    There is no change relative to the bee/train bodies from when the bees velocity is zero and 100kph.

    So what is wrong with saying the bee is a passenger when the bee's velocity is zero? Also you say once it accelerates to 100kph

    From what reduced speed does the train accelerate from and why can it not be zero?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Ok guys the penny drops.....dink dink ;-)

    I see the train/bee can have different velocitys while traveling together.

    As v=d/t both objects will have travelled different distances between the two points of time that the velocity is being measured.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Just wondering in the my question would it have made a difference if I talked about speed rather than velocity?

    if an object goes 3 metres, forward along a line and one metre back in a second.

    It's velocity would be 2 m/s?

    but the object would have travelled 3 metres in that second - is it correct to say the speed of the object is 3m/s.

    ie. Velocity of object 2 m/s
    Speed of object 3 m/s


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    Morbert,
    I agree with most of what you said but have some questions, comments, and need some clarification.

    You don't really mean this literally, do you?
    Morbert wrote: »
    This assumption is the key to the paradox. I have mentioned as much in my previous post, but will emphasise it again here. The bee and the train will only have the same velocity at the same time once the bee has accelerated to 100kph. I.e. if we look at their velocities at successive instants, we see the following:

    Bee: -10,-09 ,-08,-07,-06,-05,-04, -03,-02,-01, 00,01,02,03,04,...,100 kph
    Train:100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,100,.....,100 kph

    We can see that, when the bee is 0, the train is still moving towards it. So even though the bee is stationary with respect to the ground, it is not stationary with respect to the train. The bee, in otherwords, is being squished against the train.

    Again, we're solving this like a basic Physics problem, correct? There's a collision. A collision is an energy transfer. Two bodies need not "touch" at all to collide - like a gravitational sling-shot.

    The bee speeds up and the train slows down. The train does not have a constant velocity and the two together cannot attain the original speed of the train.

    Also, if the train conserves its KE, then from the above, the KE of the bee increased. In other words either momentum was not conserved or there's an external Force acting.

    I imagine since that's kind of Freshman Physics stuff you meant that the speed of the train was just less than 100kph. If not, please advise.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Xeno's arrow has nothing to do with Heisenberg's uncertainty principle. It can be addressed in a purely classical regime.
    I re-read my original statement and should not have used the word "fundamentally." In no way am I trying to say that the Uncertainty principle is equal to, or equivalent to Xeno's arrow. However, I find that Xeno provides a useful analogy when introducing students to the Uncertainty Principle.

    Finally, wrt
    Morbert wrote: »
    That's not why the person/bee doesn't stop the truck/train. FarmerGreen is correct by stating the momentum of the train is far greater than the momentum of the bee. The law of conservation of momentum tells us the bee cannot stop the train. I.e. For a 2-body inelastic collision (since the bee sticks to the train), there is a single solution to the relation

    m_bee v_bee + m_train v_train = (m_bee + m_train) v'

    So even if the train was flying through space with no surface or substance to push off of, it would still not be stopped by the bee.

    Again, if you are going to use the LCoM for an inelastic collision, KE is not conserved and most definitely does not increase, in the absence of external Forces or internal energy transformations - a bit beyond an introductory discussion of momentum.

    Anyhow, the train hits the bee with a Force of +xN and Newton's Third tells us that the bee hits the train with a Force of -xN. But the bee does not stop the train. Obviously.

    You can easily answer the question with the LCoM, let's not.

    Obviously, the Force on the truck does not cancel out with the equal and opposite Force on the bee. That's a fundamental mistake newbies make when trying to apply Newton's Second to an action reaction pair.

    Let's change the scenario a bit. A person standing still is hit by a truck. The person is thrown in the direction of motion of the truck.

    Without referring to the LCoM, how would you explain the fact that the person hits the truck as hard as the truck hits them, however, the person is sent flying in the direction of motion? Please explain the scenario with the use of Forces.

    Why the constraint of Forces and not the LCoM? Well this is the type of problem I use when discussing the LCoM. Students learn Newton's Laws before the LCoM. When a question arises, I hate to try and convince them of a problem they are having with the application of the LCoM by quoting the LCoM. Make sense? Better to quote information that has had time to sink it.

    Having already covered Newton's Laws, it makes sense to use them, as it helps the students comfort level.

    As usual, thanks for your thoughts - I look forward to reading your response.

    Slan.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Ok guys the penny drops.....dink dink ;-)

    I see the train/bee can have different velocitys while traveling together.

    As v=d/t both objects will have travelled different distances between the two points of time that the velocity is being measured.

    The velocity of an object is defined as the limit of distance/time as t goes to 0 (you will often see this expressed as dx/dt), so you shouldn't be considering two points in time (if you are, then you are considering average velocity, not velocity at some instant).

    Take a look at this video.



    The car and the wall are in contact from about 0:03 onwards. Notice how, even though the car is in contact with the wall, its velocity is not the same as the wall's. Similarly, the bee will come in contact with the train, but its velocity will not be the same as the train's.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Morbert wrote: »
    The velocity of an object is defined as the limit of distance/time as t goes to 0 (you will often see this expressed as dx/dt), so you shouldn't be considering two points in time (if you are, then you are considering average velocity, not velocity at some instant).

    Take a look at this video.



    The car and the wall are in contact from about 0:03 onwards. Notice how, even though the car is in contact with the wall, its velocity is not the same as the wall's. Similarly, the bee will come in contact with the train, but its velocity will not be the same as the train's.

    Point taken on the average and instant velocity.

    As for the video, the car (as a unit) has not traveled any distance for 0:03 onwards. So surely its velocity is zero

    as v = d/t and the d=0


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    FISMA wrote: »
    Morbert,
    I agree with most of what you said but have some questions, comments, and need some clarification.

    You don't really mean this literally, do you?

    Again, we're solving this like a basic Physics problem, correct? There's a collision. A collision is an energy transfer. Two bodies need not "touch" at all to collide - like a gravitational sling-shot.

    The bee speeds up and the train slows down. The train does not have a constant velocity and the two together cannot attain the original speed of the train.

    Also, if the train conserves its KE, then from the above, the KE of the bee increased. In other words either momentum was not conserved or there's an external Force acting.

    I imagine since that's kind of Freshman Physics stuff you meant that the speed of the train was just less than 100kph. If not, please advise.

    The impulse imparted on the train would is negligible. So yes, while the velocity is not strictly 100 kph, the difference is negligible.
    I re-read my original statement and should not have used the word "fundamentally." In no way am I trying to say that the Uncertainty principle is equal to, or equivalent to Xeno's arrow. However, I find that Xeno provides a useful analogy when introducing students to the Uncertainty Principle.

    I don't know the context, so all I would say is be careful. The uncertainty principle is normally derived from the non-commutative operators on quantum states, or heuristically related to waves (i.e. The dispersion of a wave through a hole).
    Again, if you are going to use the LCoM for an inelastic collision, KE is not conserved and most definitely does not increase, in the absence of external Forces or internal energy transformations - a bit beyond an introductory discussion of momentum.

    Anyhow, the train hits the bee with a Force of +xN and Newton's Third tells us that the bee hits the train with a Force of -xN. But the bee does not stop the train. Obviously.

    You can easily answer the question with the LCoM, let's not.

    Obviously, the Force on the truck does not cancel out with the equal and opposite Force on the bee. That's a fundamental mistake newbies make when trying to apply Newton's Second to an action reaction pair.

    Let's change the scenario a bit. A person standing still is hit by a truck. The person is thrown in the direction of motion of the truck.

    Without referring to the LCoM, how would you explain the fact that the person hits the truck as hard as the truck hits them, however, the person is sent flying in the direction of motion? Please explain the scenario with the use of Forces?

    Why the constraint of Forces and not the LCoM? Well this is the type of problem I use when teaching the LCoM. Students learn Newton's Laws before the LCoM. When a question arises, I hate to try and convince them of a problem they are having with the application of the LCoM by using the LCoM. Make sense?

    Having already covered Newton's Laws, it makes sense to use them, as it helps the students comfort level.

    As usual, thanks for your thoughts - I look forward to reading your response.

    Slan.

    I would use Newton's second law: F = ma. Both the person and the truck experience the same force (in opposite directions). We know that the acceleration experienced by the truck will be (by Newton's second law) the force divided by the mass of the truck (F/m_truck). Similarly, the acceleration experienced by the person will be the same force (in the opposite direction) divided by the mass of the person (-F/m_person). Notice how the acceleration is inversely proportional to mass. The mass of the truck is much much larger, so the acceleration will be much much smaller. The acceleration experienced by the person, however, will be much larger, as their mass is much smaller. This is why the truck barely changes velocity, even if the road is frictionless, and the person quickly changes velocity, and is sent flying.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Point taken on the average and instant velocity.

    As for the video, the car (as a unit) has not traveled any distance for 0:03 onwards. So surely its velocity is zero

    as v = d/t and the d=0

    We have to be careful about how we use language. From 0:03 onwards, every component of the car is moving from right to left. The back wheel's travel a few feet, the front wheels travel a few inches etc. Even the very first electrons of the car making "contact" with the electrons of the wall are travelling some distance from 0:3 onwards. No component has to settle to the same velocity as the wall ( 0 kph) until after contact. Similarly, no component of the bee has to settle to the same velocity as the train until after contact.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Morbert wrote: »
    We have to be careful about how we use language. From 0:03 onwards, every component of the car is moving from right to left. The back wheel's travel a few feet, the front wheels travel a few inches etc. Even the very first electrons of the car making "contact" with the electrons of the wall are travelling some distance from 0:3 onwards. No component has to settle to the same velocity as the wall ( 0 kph) until after contact. Similarly, no component of the bee has to settle to the same velocity as the train until after contact.


    Ok the way the car moves after the collision is like the effect of the bee squishing. But the car as a unit essentially has a velocity of zero during the impact.

    I'm going to read up more on the dx/dt instant velocity definition....as I'm still not totally convinced the train doesn't stop for an instant once it hits the bee ;-) The average velocity I was using messes things up as it requires too points in time and is essentially an average of velocity in points of time.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Ok the way the car moves after the collision is like the effect of the bee squishing. But the car as a unit essentially has a velocity of zero during the impact.

    I'm going to read up more on the dx/dt instant velocity definition....as I'm still not totally convinced the train doesn't stop for an instant once it hits the bee ;-) The average velocity I was using messes things up as it requires too points in time and is essentially an average of velocity in points of time.

    Ask yourself what you mean by the car as a unit. If, physically speaking, every component moves from right to left after contact, what is meant by a unit "essentially" having zero velocity.

    A thorough understanding of dx/dt requires real analysis, which can be quite heavy. For the purposes of basic physics, you could look up sources on calculus. If you can understand the concept of a "limit" then the hardest part will be done.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,038 ✭✭✭sponsoredwalk


    Momentum is a vector quantity consisting of the mass of an object and
    it's velocity, written as p = mv. The bolded letters represent the vectors.
    A vector is a convenient way to express that the quantity we're dealing
    with (i.e. position, velocity, acceleration) depends on both the magnitude
    and the direction. So with momentum both the magnitude, i.e. the
    numerical value, and the direction matter. In the picture below I have
    expressed the momentum of the bee in red and the train in blue, notice
    how the blue arrow is much bigger (greater magnitude). This is because
    it has more mass and has a higher velocity (in this example).

    beejpg.jpg

    Box 1 has them approaching each other. Box 2 has them just about to
    collide. Box 3 is a moment after collision, notice how both arrows have
    gotten smaller because of the collision (I've exaggerated the trains). Box 4
    illustrates the moment when the bee has no velocity, at this point the
    bee has no momentum. However, that does not mean that the system
    has no momentum or that the train has no momentum. Lets do some
    math:

    [latex] \overline{p}_{(bee)}} \ = \ m_{(bee)} \overline{v}_{(bee)} \ = \ mv_b[/latex]
    [latex] \overline{p}_{(train)} \ = \ m_{(train)} \overline{v}_{(train)}\ = mv_t[/latex]

    By the conservation of momentum we know that

    [latex] m_bv_b_1 \ + \ m_tv_t_1 \ = \ m_bv_b_2 \ + \ m_tv_t_2[/latex]

    Since this is an inelastic collision it becomes:

    [latex] m_bv_b_1 \ + \ m_tv_t_1 \ = \ (m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t_2[/latex]

    At the point at which the bee has zero velocity it has zero momentum,
    & the above equation just becomes:

    [latex] m_bv_b_1 \ + \ m_tv_t_1 \ = \ (m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t_2[/latex]

    [latex] 0 \ + \ m_tv_t_1 \ = \ (m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t_2[/latex]

    [latex] m_tv_t_1 \ = \ (m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t[/latex]

    So at this particular point we see that the train does not have zero
    velocity it has velocity:

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t}{(m_t)}[/latex]

    This really is just an instantaneous moment, in the fifth box above you
    see the fly is beginning to move with the train but has not reached the
    full velocity (and therefore momentum) just yet. I must stress that this
    is a miniscule amount of time. The sixth box has the fly and train moving
    together now, notice how the fly has a tiny arrow tacked onto the much
    bigger arrow, it has the velocity of the train but it's tiny mass forces it to
    have a much smaller arrow. The last box considers both the train & the
    bee as a whole system, in purple. The thing about vectors is that you can
    add them and they will form a whole, notice how I've added the red and
    blue arrows and they equal the magnitude and direction of the purple
    arrow. They are equal.

    Ultimately all of this has to do with forces, Δp = ∫F(t)dt. We see that
    momentum is just an algebraically simpler way of understanding what
    forces are doing over time, momentum expresses the sum of all the
    infinitesimal forces occurring in a system.

    Also, I must stress that the mass of the bee compared to the mass of
    the train is ridiculous, in the equation

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t}{(m_t)}[/latex]

    if we algebraically simplify it:

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b}{(m_t)}v_t + \ \frac{(m_t)}{(m_t)}v_t[/latex]

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b)}{(m_t)}v_t + \ v_t[/latex]

    the difference is ridiculous, m_b is like 0.8Kg & the train is like 10,000Kg
    so we have [latex] \frac{0.8Kg}{10,000Kg}v_t \ = \ 0.00008v_t[/latex]
    and this implies

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b)}{(m_t)}v_t + \ v_t[/latex]

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ (0.00008)v_t + \ v_t[/latex]

    which wouldn't even register, (yes I chose a fat bee).
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    However, what I can't grasp is this, If the bee has a velocity of zero for an instant...surely the train must have a velocity of zero for an instant...

    With the bee stuck to the window screen of the train...with no loss of its mass. Surely the train must also be stopped for an instant?

    I hope the above answers your question, there is absolutely no way that
    the train stops and the equation above clearly shows that.
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    But the Bee must at some stage still have a velocity of zero? As it changes direction

    And at the time it has a velocity of zero it will be stuck to the train,so the train will also have a velocity of zero?

    This is what I am trying to get to grips with...as how can the bee/train not have a velocity of zero at some stage?

    Just to be clear, by the conservation of momentum we see that the
    train has a velocity of

    [latex] v_t_1 \ = \ \frac{(m_b \ + \ m_t)v_t}{(m_t)}[/latex]

    at this moment. The conservation of momentum is just a way to
    understand how forces act.
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    v= d / t

    Am I correct in saying the concept of velocity gets tricky when dealing with 'instants' in time. Lets say the instant of a collision?

    That to measure the velocity, two points are required to measure the distance, and two points in time to get a time measurement. So that it is impossible to measure the velocity of something at the 'instant' of collision?

    You really would need to study a bit of calculus to understand how this
    works. Yes velocity is an average of the distance between two points
    divided by time but through calculus you take an infinite number of
    averages over an infinite number of intervals and sum them up pacman.gif
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    The conservation of momentum does not tell us the bee connot stop the train for an instant. As 'velocity' is essentially an average of velocity between too points. It does not in anyway indicate the train did not stop for a moment in time.

    You can't use regular velocity in this situation. Once forces come into play,
    which they do in a collision, you are dealing with accelerations. Any form
    of acceleration means that velocity cannot be calculated in the regular
    way of v = d/t it requires calculus as it's non-linear. Momentum hides the
    fact that we're really just dealing with forces and since F = ma and
    because a = dv/dt (the rate of change of velocity with respect to time)
    we simply cannot think in terms of v = d/t, we are using the idea of
    averages over miniscule distances over miniscule time intervals and summing up all the values.
    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    From what reduced speed does the train accelerate from and why can it not be zero?

    It passes the zero mark as it goes from +10kmh to -100kmh, you have
    to understand how direction comes into play, the -100kmh indicates
    that the bee is going in the negative direction to that which it was
    originally flying in. Look at my picture, the train is always moving from right
    to left & we say it has a velocity of -100kmh with regard to our coordinate
    system.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    Unfortunately I don't think boards supports the LaTex Tags. Either that or my PC is being snobby.

    This is what I normally use outside of physicsforums.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,038 ✭✭✭sponsoredwalk


    Morbert wrote: »
    Unfortunately I don't think boards supports the LaTex Tags. Either that or my PC is being snobby.

    This is what I normally use outside of physicsforums.

    https://addons.mozilla.org/en-US/firefox/addon/latex-composer/

    This thing is so helpful, it's a little button you can put beside your address
    bar and click when you need LaTeX & it's got a preview window. I go to PF
    only if I can't remember the code for a specific equation, but you pick them
    up quick and this thing is really quick.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Thanks Sponsored walk.

    I understand conservation of momentum and the equations behind it. Your post was very illustrative. However, you are using average velocity in your momentum product (mv)

    By definition, (average) velocity is the ratio of distance travelled to time taken. In this definition two distinct points in space and two distinct points in time are required. So this is not very useful in dealing with 'instant' of a collision.

    To find velocity at a point or 'instant' calculus is required.

    Velocity at a point is then defined as the limit of the average velocity over smaller and smaller spatiotemporal intervals around the point. According to this definition, a body may have a nonzero “velocity” at each point, but at each instant of time will not “appear to be moving”.

    Here is link with a bit about average and instant velocitys that I quoted from.

    http://publish.uwo.ca/~jbell/Oppositions%20and%20Paradoxes%20in%20Mathematics2.pdf

    Now the problem with using infintisimals with collisions, is that if keep sub dividing the distances between the objects(bee/train) they will never actually touch.....a bit like Zenos paradox again..Even if add up the infinite series to a constant, it is hard to know where on the infinite series the objects actually touched?

    So maybe calculus doesn't really help determine the speed of the train at the point of collision? Can someone do the maths for this? Prove me wrong with calculus.

    I came across a paper based on logic (not algebra/calculus) that seems to suggest,that there is 'action at a distance forces'and two objects colliding would not actually ever touch!

    This paper is very heavy...it does not use calculus and reverts to formal logic equations (the wall situation paradox, it mentioned action at distance)

    http://logicalkorea.com/attach/paper/11-2-YiBU.pdf (in this paper its a particle and a wall not a bee/train)

    Am totally waffling here, over my head, it's more of a confused brain dump! While trying the figure out the collision velocities at impact!


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Thanks Sponsored walk.

    I understand conservation of momentum and the equations behind it. Your post was very illustrative. However, you are using average velocity in your momentum product (mv)

    By definition, (average) velocity is the ratio of distance travelled to time taken. In this definition two distinct points in space and two distinct points in time are required. So this is not very useful in dealing with 'instant' of a collision.

    To find velocity at a point or 'instant' calculus is required.

    Velocity at a point is then defined as the limit of the average velocity over smaller and smaller spatiotemporal intervals around the point. According to this definition, a body may have a nonzero “velocity” at each point, but at each instant of time will not “appear to be moving”.

    Here is link with a bit about average and instant velocitys that I quoted from.

    http://publish.uwo.ca/~jbell/Oppositions%20and%20Paradoxes%20in%20Mathematics2.pdf

    Now the problem with using infintisimals with collisions, is that if keep sub dividing the distances between the objects(bee/train) they will never actually touch.....a bit like Zenos paradox again..Even if add up the infinite series to a constant, it is hard to know where on the infinite series the objects actually touched?

    So maybe calculus doesn't really help determine the speed of the train at the point of collision? Can someone do the maths for this? Prove me wrong with calculus.

    I came across a paper based on logic (not algebra/calculus) that seems to suggest,that there is 'action at a distance forces'and two objects colliding would not actually ever touch!

    This paper is very heavy...it does not use calculus and reverts to formal logic equations (the wall situation paradox, it mentioned action at distance)

    http://logicalkorea.com/attach/paper/11-2-YiBU.pdf (in this paper its a particle and a wall not a bee/train)

    Am totally waffling here, over my head, it's more of a confused brain dump! While trying the figure out the collision velocities at impact!

    Again I have to stress that Xeno's paradox s entirely irrelevant. While it is interesting, it only distracts from the issue at hand.

    The issue is the assumption that things in contact must be moving at the same velocity. There is no reason to assume this, as "contact" is an approximation.

    Also, if the train moved at the same speed as the bee while they are in contact, the momentum conservation law would be broken.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,038 ✭✭✭sponsoredwalk


    Lol, average velocity is the change in position over some time interval
    divided by the change in time taken during that interval, instantaneous
    velocity is the instantaneous rate of change of position with respect to
    time. Another way to say this is that taking the derivative of the position
    function gives the instantaneous velocity at every point.

    If x(t) = t² is the position function then v(t) = 2t is the velocity function and
    this gives the instantaneous rate of change of position.

    average velocity = [latex] \frac{x(t_2) \ - \ x(t_1)}{t_2 \ - \ t_1} \ = \ \frac{(5)^2 \ - \ (2)^2}{5 \ - \ 2} \ = \ \frac{25 \ - \ 4}{3} \ = \ 7[/latex]

    That equation gives the average velocity from t = 2s to t = 5s, now look
    at the instantaneous velocity equation, when is the instantaneous velocity
    equal to 7m/s?

    Instantaneous velocity = [latex] v(t_0) \ = \ 2t_0[/latex]

    2t₀ = 7 → t₀ = 3.5s

    See the difference? Now, when you're dealing with forces it implicitly
    means you are dealing with accelerations! What is acceleration? It is
    the instantaneous rate of change of velocity with respect to time, but
    you can also have an average acceleration which is the change in position
    over some time interval divided by the change in time taken during that
    interval. You've got the same situation as I described above.

    The importance of this is that force:

    [latex]\overline{F}(t) \ = m \overline{a}(t) [/latex]

    can also be expressed as the derivative of momentum:

    [latex]\overline{F}(t) \ = \ \frac{d \overline{p}}{dt} \ = \ m \overline{a}(t) [/latex]

    and through calculus we can see that ∫dp = ∫F(t)dt or p₂ - p₁ = ∫F(t)dt
    or mv(t₂) - mv(t₁) = ∫F(t)dt so the instantaneous velocity at the final
    point minus the instantaneous velocity at the initial point is equal to the
    forces that were acting on the body during that time interval and since
    in a collision forces are constantly changing this is very convenient.
    Notice that the F(t) implies a certain equation for a(t) and the a(t)
    implies that v(t) has a specific equation relating to the system.

    If you're interested in going deeper, the calculus videos at www.khanacademy.org
    would clarify a lot of this and the MIT & Yale physics lectures online would be helpful,
    if you check the useful links threads in the physics & math forums there are loads of links too.

    None of the logic/philosophy stuff you posted is in any way helpful in
    understanding this question, you're going to confuse yourself with it,
    I really suggest calculus - try understanding rotational dynamics without it :pac:


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,616 ✭✭✭FISMA


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »

    Now the problem with using infintisimals with collisions, is that if keep sub dividing the distances between the objects(bee/train) they will never actually touch.....a bit like Zenos paradox again..Even if add up the infinite series to a constant, it is hard to know where on the infinite series the objects actually touched?
    ...
    Am totally waffling here, over my head, it's more of a confused brain dump! While trying the figure out the collision velocities at impact!

    MonkeyDoo,
    You're walking a line between Physics and MetaPhysics. Sounds more as if you're doing metaPhysics.

    As for touching, at the microscopic level nothing is touching, but that does not matter. Momentum is the transfer of energy. Scientists use collisions in which there is no touching all of the time. Whenever we use the Sun for a gravitational slingshot in order to get a probe into deep space, that's a collision and momentum is conserved.

    What we're doing here is purely empirical. You do not have to take anyone's word for any result. Run the experiment yourself and within experimental limits, you will see that: the LCoM holds true, the train never stops, the train slows down just a bit, and the bee speeds up. That's Physics - the study of the natural world. We don't worry about why things happened, we just acknowledge that they did and attempt to correlate future outcomes on past events.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,134 ✭✭✭FarmerGreen


    Oh ****.
    Now I know.
    I've always wondered how the bomb worked.

    A 280mm artillery shell
    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=B9F-l_3eLcE


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Oh ****.
    Now I know.
    I've always wondered how the bomb worked.

    A 280mm artillery shell
    http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=B9F-l_3eLcE

    Ok now that hasn't much the do with the bee/train problem! FarmerGreen..

    But could take the voice over from that video and put it over a porno film...especially the last 30secs!

    Sometimes I curse my imagination!


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Lol, average velocity is the change in position over some time interval
    divided by the change in time taken during that interval, instantaneous
    velocity is the instantaneous rate of change of position with respect to
    time. Another way to say this is that taking the derivative of the position
    function gives the instantaneous velocity at every point.

    If x(t) = t² is the position function then v(t) = 2t is the velocity function and
    this gives the instantaneous rate of change of position.

    average velocity = [latex] \frac{x(t_2) \ - \ x(t_1)}{t_2 \ - \ t_1} \ = \ \frac{(5)^2 \ - \ (2)^2}{5 \ - \ 2} \ = \ \frac{25 \ - \ 4}{3} \ = \ 7[/latex]

    That equation gives the average velocity from t = 2s to t = 5s, now look
    at the instantaneous velocity equation, when is the instantaneous velocity
    equal to 7m/s?

    Instantaneous velocity = [latex] v(t_0) \ = \ 2t_0[/latex]

    2t₀ = 7 → t₀ = 3.5s

    See the difference? Now, when you're dealing with forces it implicitly
    means you are dealing with accelerations! What is acceleration? It is
    the instantaneous rate of change of velocity with respect to time, but
    you can also have an average acceleration which is the change in position
    over some time interval divided by the change in time taken during that
    interval. You've got the same situation as I described above.

    The importance of this is that force:

    [latex]\overline{F}(t) \ = m \overline{a}(t) [/latex]

    can also be expressed as the derivative of momentum:

    [latex]\overline{F}(t) \ = \ \frac{d \overline{p}}{dt} \ = \ m \overline{a}(t) [/latex]

    and through calculus we can see that ∫dp = ∫F(t)dt or p₂ - p₁ = ∫F(t)dt
    or mv(t₂) - mv(t₁) = ∫F(t)dt so the instantaneous velocity at the final
    point minus the instantaneous velocity at the initial point is equal to the
    forces that were acting on the body during that time interval and since
    in a collision forces are constantly changing this is very convenient.
    Notice that the F(t) implies a certain equation for a(t) and the a(t)
    implies that v(t) has a specific equation relating to the system.

    If you're interested in going deeper, the calculus videos at www.khanacademy.org
    would clarify a lot of this and the MIT & Yale physics lectures online would be helpful,
    if you check the useful links threads in the physics & math forums there are loads of links too.

    None of the logic/philosophy stuff you posted is in any way helpful in
    understanding this question, you're going to confuse yourself with it,
    I really suggest calculus - try understanding rotational dynamics without it :pac:

    Thanks sponsoredwalk,

    Once again I totally agree with you on the momentum.

    Will take a further look at some calculus. But when constantly subdividing time and distance it relies on infintisimals. And I am having difficulty with those especially as it depends on continums and I tend to think of the world in discrete terms. I must admit I am not fully on top of the calculus. But it seems its trick is the infinite series can add up to a constant. I will look into this more.

    I can see the way calculus divided time up at infinitum as there does not seem to be any discrete unit of time? This seems fair enough. But am not sure if can divide space distance at infinitum..as my mind tends to think of that in discrete terms. Because if an object has no discrete position..it is a continum...it leads to objects overlapping and action at a distance does it not?

    FISMA agree it's maybe not physics but metaphysics.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,038 ✭✭✭sponsoredwalk


    Well there are two routes you could take, you could study non-standard
    calculus which as I understand it is calculus using infinitesimals & this was
    only put on rigorous ground around the 1960's. A great introduction to this
    would be the free book Calculus Made Easy by Silvanus Thompson. You
    could then check out the non-standard analysis books that are around,
    This one is written by that guy Bell you quoted (I think). I've also come
    across other free books that more explicitly use infinitesimals so maybe
    they would be a better choice than Thompson.

    However, I think that non-standard analysis is mostly studied by students
    who already know the more standard calculus & analysis of limits, this is
    the kind you'll find in Stewart Calculus, Thomas Calculus, Spivak Calculus
    etc... and in the khanacademy videos. This is the kind I think everyone
    on here is using & I'd really suggest this because you have so many
    choices of books to begin with & an almost unlimited choice of books
    that use these ideas in more advanced courses.

    That said, I may be getting non-standard analysis wrong because I have
    no interest in it yet, the standard kind is hard enough :o but the
    contents of Bell's book do look good.

    Let me stress that calculus/analysis doesn't care about space, it's
    irrelevant. It's a mathematical construct that is independent of reality,
    it just so happens that it explains nature crazily well. If you start thinking
    of distances in the real world at miniscule lengths you're dealing with
    quantum mechanics, you'll most likely waste a hell of a lot of time doing
    this & I advise teaching yourself partial differential equations, wave
    mechanics, special relativity etc... so that you can think about these
    things properly* someday. That said, doing this is literally the most difficult
    thing I've ever done in my life so don't expect it to be easy :pac:

    * Obviously think about it, but math has a way of helping you understand previously
    incomprehensible things - no joke!


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Thanks sponsored walk,

    Will check out both types of calculus and get back if it can actually be used to determine the velocity of the train at the point of impact with the bee.

    "It's a mathematical construct that is independent of reality,
    it just so happens that it explains nature crazily well. If you start thinking
    of distances in the real world at miniscule lengths you're dealing with
    quantum mechanics"

    It's a pity the world of physics seems to be divided up into quantum and classical worlds, why can't they get along ;-)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    MonkeyDoo wrote: »
    Thanks sponsored walk,

    Will check out both types of calculus and get back if it can actually be used to determine the velocity of the train at the point of impact with the bee.

    "It's a mathematical construct that is independent of reality,
    it just so happens that it explains nature crazily well. If you start thinking
    of distances in the real world at miniscule lengths you're dealing with
    quantum mechanics"

    It's a pity the world of physics seems to be divided up into quantum and classical worlds, why can't they get along ;-)

    To be honest I would steer clear of non-standard real analysis until you are familiar with real analysis. The physics of this problem is understandable using real analysis. As I have said before, the velocity of the train at the point of impact will be (fractionally less than) 100kph. If the velocity of the train was the same as the bee then the law of conservation of momentum would be broken. This would be the case regardless of whether or not you used the standard real number system.

    Using your line from the original post:

    10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh


    the train is in contact with the bee across this entire interval and not just at the instant of 0 (otherwise why would the bee be slowing down). So you would not just postulate a stationary train at an instant, but a slow train over a finite time interval. Where has the momentum gone over that interval?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 127 ✭✭MonkeyDoo


    Morbert wrote: »
    To be honest I would steer clear of non-standard real analysis until you are familiar with real analysis. The physics of this problem is understandable using real analysis. As I have said before, the velocity of the train at the point of impact will be (fractionally less than) 100kph. If the velocity of the train was the same as the bee then the law of conservation of momentum would be broken. This would be the case regardless of whether or not you used the standard real number system.

    Using your line from the original post:

    10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh


    the train is in contact with the bee across this entire interval and not just at the instant of 0 (otherwise why would the bee be slowing down). So you would not just postulate a stationary train at an instant, but a slow train over a finite time interval. Where has the momentum gone over that interval?

    Nice question Mobert...

    I also like when you previously mentioned just because two objects are in contact does not mean they are travelling at the same velocity. That was an incorrect assumption that I made.

    This is what I find tricky with what you say above its that the bee is in contract with the train for the entire interval with these speeds

    10,9,8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,1,2,3,4....100kmh

    How can the bee have a velocity of -10 when it is in contact with a train going 100kmh in the opposite direction. As soon as it makes contact the bee stops going forward.

    It's a bit like the car/wall video you posted

    I can't see how the car can have a speed of 60kmh once it hits a wall as the car hasn't travelled any distance.

    Now if talk instant velocity...

    Car crashes against wall and decellerates from 60kmh to 0

    So car remains exerting force on wall until its instant velocity hits zero...

    Ok...penny is dropping again ;-)

    bee hits train.....bee does not move forward...bee...exerts forward momentum -mv on train until its instant velocity goes to zero. Train loses amount of momentum equal to bees forward momentum . The bee accellerates in same direction of train...

    Ok, I'm wrong! Train doesn't stop!

    When start thinking again Forces rather than speeds it suddenly clicked! F=ma

    Thanks for the patience....am feeling rather unintelligent at the mo!


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