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Religion and Morality - Poles apart.

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  • Registered Users Posts: 30,746 ✭✭✭✭Galvasean


    JimiTime wrote: »
    Now, there is no actual alternative to God. Yes, there are theories and guesses about what it could possibly be. To turn these unknowns into definates based on closing ones mind to the idea of a creator, is merely 'naturalism of the gaps'. You are just assuming that there is a naturalistic answer that you haven't quite found yet.

    So, rejecting the idea of putting God into the gaps is automatically 'naturalism of the gaps'?
    Alright I think I can agree with you there. (huzzah! :))

    Although in defense of the naturalism position at least it actively tries to seek out evidence on its behalf.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    JimiTime wrote: »
    Thing is, none of the above is known. You don't 'know' if life, or the formation of the universe etc happened without God. What 'god doesn't exist', said, was that God is not required. The fact is though, you don't know if he is or not.

    We do know he isn't required.

    One cannot say that just because he isn't required doesn't mean he certainly didn't do something.

    But (in the spirit of the other thread) that is like saying that just because little invisible fairies pushing with all their might are not required for a ball to fall to the Earth that doesn't mean they aren't involved.

    And BTW there are an infinite number of alternatives to God. Two space turtles having sex with each other in another dimension is an alternative to "God did it"


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    If you had read the Chabad article you would have seen that the Torah improves the conditions of slavery considerably so that one day it would be obsolete. An improvement of rights within slavery is considerably better than dramatic change that would eventually result in war as it did in the USA under Abraham Lincoln.
    That is the excuse? He wanted to get rid of it entirely but he was worried about the trouble it might cause if he just banned it out right?

    That didn't seem to bother God too much in every other area? :rolleyes:

    Why was he so worried about war if he abolished slavery (something he seemingly didn't like according to you). Surely abolishing the worshipping of other idols might have lead to wars? Heck even genocide?

    Oh right, it did... War more often than not started by the Hebrews themselves.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    The difference between mine and yours is, yours isolates a specific verse out of context, mine takes the general view of labour in Biblical Israel.

    No the difference is that you have to reconcile the idea of God instructing his people the proper way to beat a slave, or the proper time to wait before you can rape a prisoner of war, or the proper way to take a slaves wife and children as your own, with the concept of a loving, just God.

    So you aren't looking at a general view of "labour" in the Bible, you are looking at an abstract view where you can ignore the specific details about slavery because you can't excuse the specifics.

    This is the same nonsense we get all the time about the Old Testament. The books are full to the brim of specific exact examples of horrific inhumanity, but all we hear is that if you some how read the whole thing, if you look at the "big picture" you will realises that it isn't all that bad at all.

    Which is just smoke and mirrors.

    It is changing the discussion from the specific chapters and verses that you cannot defend to an abstract notion of the general tone of the books as a whole that you can defend because no one else here sees the same big picture you apparently see, cause we are all reading it wrong apparently.

    Everything is out of context because the context has to be that God loves us all and would never approve of something like slavery :rolleyes:


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    That is the excuse? He wanted to get rid of it entirely but he was worried about the trouble it might cause if he just banned it out right?

    Labour still pretty much exists in a similar form in the Western world today. I don't believe that God needs to be excused. I think the slavery of Biblical Israel was entirely above board and I have no reason to doubt that for a second. The Torah makes rather clear that slaves had rights for their own protection, masters were told of their duty to serve their neighbour a certain way and slaves were to be treated as fellow Israelites. I'm taking this from the perspective of if this were active today, almost from a Jewish perspective. I don't see this as a detriment to Torah bound Israel, but rather a matter of misinterpretation out of convenience, perhaps even intentional to take a potshot at God's character.

    Chabad do offer a reasonable explanation on the subject however. It's clear the focus on Torah law wasn't to do away with slavery or labour, but rather to reform it to give people rights. I think that's a rather noble aim actually.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    That didn't seem to bother God too much in every other area? :rolleyes:

    Why was he so worried about war if he abolished slavery (something he seemingly didn't like according to you). Surely abolishing the worshipping of other idols might have lead to wars? Heck even genocide?

    Oh right, it did... War more often than not started by the Hebrews themselves.

    Punishment for sins is a rather different topic to the topic of slavery.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    No the difference is that you have to reconcile the idea of God instructing his people the proper way to beat a slave, or the proper time to wait before you can rape a prisoner of war, or the proper way to take a slaves wife and children as your own, with the concept of a loving, just God.

    No. There isn't a single passage in the Bible where God encourages the torture of any slave anywhere, actually several passages discourage threatening behaviour. There is a difference between civil laws and moral laws. This is a law binding on the Biblical state of Israel, if you do this you will be punished by the Sanhedrin authorities, however this does not mean that one does not incur moral guilt for certain actions that are to be dealt with in the Jewish context by guilt offering / sin offering. So your view is really inconsistent. Theres a distinction between laws which are punishable before the judges in Torah, and the moral and ethical laws which are a matter of duty within the community to follow.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    So you aren't looking at a general view of "labour" in the Bible, you are looking at an abstract view where you can ignore the specific details about slavery because you can't excuse the specifics.

    Of course I am. I haven't ignored the verse that was raised. However the rest of the passage in Exodus 21 alone let alone other references to slavery in the text were left ignored. Yet, you claim that I am the one that has ignored the context, the passages and so on? I reject people using isolated verses without taking into account the whole, and unfortunately for you the Torah alone even if I don't take into account the New Testament which fulfils elements of the Jewish law endows rights to these people.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    This is the same nonsense we get all the time about the Old Testament. The books are full to the brim of specific exact examples of horrific inhumanity, but all we hear is that if you some how read the whole thing, if you look at the "big picture" you will realises that it isn't all that bad at all.

    Wicknight, so far this discussion has involved Dave selecting a passage from Exodus 21 while also claiming he hadn't even read the entire chapter to see what the context was, and myself showing that there is a rather good explanation for how Torah slavery is different infact very different from colonial slavery.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    It is changing the discussion from the specific chapters and verses that you cannot defend to an abstract notion of the general tone of the books as a whole that you can defend because no one else here sees the same big picture you apparently see, cause we are all reading it wrong apparently.

    You kidding me Wicknight? So far we have discussed one verse, of which there are dozens of others which actually present a fuller picture of Torah slavery. We are dealing with slavery here, if you want to move onto a different topic please present the specific scripture/s you want to discuss and we will deal with it.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Everything is out of context because the context has to be that God loves us :rolleyes:

    Well, actually everything is out of context due to people taking one verse and not even researching the rest of the verses concerning slavery before making a judgement. Do you realise how fallacious that is for a second?

    I think it's more that atheists want to make God to be a worse character that He really is for convenience or to use such falsehoods to strengthen their argument.

    All I'm looking for is for you to realise that the Biblical case of slavery isn't as you first thought if you don't have any other textual evidence to the contrary.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Wicknight wrote: »
    We do know he isn't required.

    I hadn't realised that. So its conclusive that life forms from inanimate substance without a push? That the big ball of dust that went bang formed from what exactly? etc etc?


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    JimiTime wrote: »
    I hadn't realised that. So its conclusive that life forms from inanimate substance without a push? That the big ball of dust that went bang formed from what exactly? etc etc?

    It is conclusive that life can for from inanimate substance without a supernatural "push"

    It is conclusive that "the big ball of dust that went bang" (:confused:) can form from very complicated things in M-theory call branes which tend to collide with each other in extra-dimensional space.

    We don't know that either of these things are what did cause life/universe to come into existence, but we know they can cause them to come into existence. The models work.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Wicknight wrote: »
    It is conclusive that life can for from inanimate substance without a supernatural "push"

    So they've reproduced this? Or is this the amino acids thing?
    It is conclusive that "the big ball of dust that went bang" (:confused:) can form from very complicated things in M-theory call branes which tend to collide with each other in extra-dimensional space.

    And these branes came from?
    We don't know that either of these things are what did cause life/universe to come into existence, but we know they can cause them to come into existence. The models work.

    So you are sure that these models can produce universes and life? Or is this on paper we are talking? How much life and universes have these models produced?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,359 ✭✭✭Overblood


    What the hell is going on in this thread.


  • Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 25,558 Mod ✭✭✭✭Dades


    Nothing out of the ordinary it seems to me.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,245 ✭✭✭✭Fanny Cradock


    Just ban everybody, Dades.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 17,371 ✭✭✭✭Zillah


    Yeah just ban everyone.


  • Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 25,558 Mod ✭✭✭✭Dades


    Oooh tempting.

    Can't see it getting me any free beer next Friday though. :p


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    JimiTime wrote: »
    So they've reproduced this? Or is this the amino acids thing?

    And these branes came from?

    So you are sure that these models can produce universes and life? Or is this on paper we are talking? How much life and universes have these models produced?

    Groan :(

    Is this going to turn into another one of those "Has anyone ever actually see pond slime evolve into a human being" discussion that the Creationist thread is famous for.

    There are both lab experiments and computer models that show self-replicating molecules both forming and evolving. The computer models naturally take this quite far as they can run faster than real time, the lab experiments not so much.

    We also have computer models of more complicating self replicating molecules forming things like cells with walls.

    So we have computer models that show self replicating molecules kicking off replication and we have computer models showing them evolving into more complicated cell like structures.

    We don't know if this is how life got started on Earth, but we do know that this is how life can get started in this universe following this universes laws of physics.

    How you define "life" will effect how impressed you are by this. If you think life is a man sitting in a chair reading the New York times, no we don't have computer models that have evolved a self replicating molecule into that.

    The important bit is that there is no step that cannot take place simply through the natural laws of chemistry. If you want to argue that the laws of chemistry must have come from "someone" go ahead, but that is an argument without any air.

    As for the branes they didn't "come" from anywhere, in the models I've read about they exist eternally, the big bang is them crashing into each other, retreating and then some 130 billion years later, collapsing and crashing into each other again.

    Again we don't know if this is how our universe works, but it is how our universe could work.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Labour still pretty much exists in a similar form in the Western world today.
    Labour does, slavery doesn't. Your assertion that the Bible is pretty much describing having a maid is ridiculous.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    The Torah makes rather clear that slaves had rights for their own protection

    So did the laws of the United States during slavery. It was considered "unChristian" to beat or kill a slave for no reason. You had to pay a fine. Sound familiar?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    , masters were told of their duty to serve their neighbour a certain way and slaves were to be treated as fellow Israelites.
    No, the slaves that were fellow Israelites were to be treated better than the slaves from wars. Neither were treated the same as non-slave Israelites.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Chabad do offer a reasonable explanation on the subject however.
    No they don't, they just gloss over it in the same way you are doing.

    The idea that God couldn't do what Lincoln did is ridiculous. When has God ever worried about people start wars over his commandments. God started plenty of wars himself against those who did not follow him,
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Punishment for sins is a rather different topic to the topic of slavery.
    Only because slavery was never made a sin. If God didn't like slavery he had a very simply option, add it to the lists of things he didn't like (homosexuality, idolatry, prostitution, fornication) and tell the Hebrews they had to do away with slavery.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    No. There isn't a single passage in the Bible where God encourages the torture of any slave anywhere, actually several passages discourage threatening behaviour.
    Nonsense

    The Bible specifically states you can beat your property as much as you like so long as you don't kill him because he is your property

    You don't get a clearer cut case of this being slavery.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    There is a difference between civil laws and moral laws. This is a law binding on the Biblical state of Israel, if you do this you will be punished by the Sanhedrin authorities, however this does not mean that one does not incur moral guilt for certain actions that are to be dealt with in the Jewish context by guilt offering / sin offering. So your view is really inconsistent. Theres a distinction between laws which are punishable before the judges in Torah, and the moral and ethical laws which are a matter of duty within the community to follow.

    More smoke and mirror nonsense Jakkass. How many things did God specifically tell the Israelites not to do? Yet slavery escaped all this?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Of course I am. I haven't ignored the verse that was raised. However the rest of the passage in Exodus 21 alone let alone other references to slavery in the text were left ignored.
    Because they don't matter. There is no passage in Exodus 21, or any other chapter in the Bible that contradict that passage. It stands as it is. You can't get around it by simply saying "Look over there!" and then running away.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Yet, you claim that I am the one that has ignored the context, the passages and so on?
    I'm not claiming you are ignorant of it, I imagine you know perfectly well what the passage says and what it means. But you are caught in a bind because you cannot rational such a law against what you want God to be. So you choose to pretend that it doesn't actually matter that much.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I reject people using isolated verses without taking into account the whole
    These are lists of laws. There is nothing that contradicts or gets around that instruction in any other part of the Bible.

    This is what God sanctioned them to do. He didn't sanction them to have homosexual sex, or work on Saturday, or let mildew grow in their homes, but he did let them beat their slaves and take their wives as there own.

    Your excuses for why he allowed this are pathetic.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    Labour does, slavery doesn't. Your assertion that the Bible is pretty much describing having a maid is ridiculous.

    Your assertion that slavery in Israel was anywhere near the slavery in colonial times is quite frankly ridiculous in my view but let's agree to disagree on that one.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    So did the laws of the United States during slavery. It was considered "unChristian" to beat or kill a slave for no reason. You had to pay a fine. Sound familiar?

    Citation? Were slaves allowed legally to flee to a place of safety in the case of abuse as in the Torah? Did they obey God in not oppressing these people? (Deuteronomy 23:15-16), or did they follow the commandment from Paul not to threaten slaves with violence at all? (Ephesians 6:9, Colossians 4:1) Did they follow the commandment of the Torah to treat an alien as a fellow Israelite. (Leviticus 19:33-34, Exodus 12:48-49, Deuteronomy 10:19). Then we have Christian scriptures which also call for equality in the case of slaves (Galatians 3:28). In many of these cases they cite the reason that the Israelites who were reading the Torah should honour the alien due to the very reason that they too were slaves in Egypt. How on earth could they impose a system that was just as cruel as in Egypt, and yet write passages like this in the Torah? Well logically one would have to conclude that the Torah laws endowed a lot of rights to the people who laboured as slaves in Ancient Israel. This is the general Biblical picture, unless someone can prove to me with a clear concise argument that is based on more than one verse that this isn't the case. I'm quite open to this possibility too may I add.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    No, the slaves that were fellow Israelites were to be treated better than the slaves from wars. Neither were treated the same as non-slave Israelites.

    I believe the difference was in the length of terms an Israelite could serve rather than anything else. That's something I have to consult.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    No they don't, they just gloss over it in the same way you are doing.

    I really don't think they do. I don't gloss it over, I've given you quite a depth of textual evidence to justify my position.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    The idea that God couldn't do what Lincoln did is ridiculous. When has God ever worried about people start wars over his commandments. God started plenty of wars himself against those who did not follow him

    We aren't saying that He couldn't do what Lincoln could do, but rather arguing that He did a better job by a long shot improving the rights of slaves considerably over time. The wars of the Torah and the early Historical texts of Judaism are ones of vindication for the sins of the tribes occupying the land of Israel for not allowing the Jews to settle in the land in peace, with the Amalek ambushing the Israelites at Rephedim (Exodus 17:8-16) and if you look to the cases of the refusal to allow the Israelites to pass through Edom (Numbers 20:14-21), again prior to entering through the territory of the Amorites, Moses sent a group to ask for permission to pass through their land at first, it was only when there was a refusal that an invasion was carried out (Numbers 21:21-26). But let's stick with slavery for now, we need to clear this up before we get into more complicated matters concerning the conquest of Israel by those who it was promised to in the covenant of Abraham (Genesis 17).
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Only because slavery was never made a sin. If God didn't like slavery he had a very simply option, add it to the lists of things he didn't like (homosexuality, idolatry, prostitution, fornication) and tell the Hebrews they had to do away with slavery.

    Relevance? There was no point of making slavery a sin if God had guaranteed essential rights to the people who it affected even giving them redress and sanctuary if they should have been mistreated by their masters, however there was cases that slaves liked working under their masters so much that they even agreed to stay with them for lifetime and to work for them. (Exodus 21:5).
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Nonsense

    The Bible specifically states you can beat your property as much as you like so long as you don't kill him because he is your property

    You don't get a clearer cut case of this being slavery.

    Under the civil law of Israel you would be punished under the Sanhedrin if you killed your slaver correct. Under the moral law of God however you weren't meant to threaten slaves at all. I think you would agree there is a difference in urgency between a murder charge and a charge of assault. You still haven't refuted by any means of the case that God specifically tells people abusing slaves is right and proper.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    More smoke and mirror nonsense Jakkass. How many things did God specifically tell the Israelites not to do? Yet slavery escaped all this?

    I don't consider Torah slavery to be wrong, but that that was the labour of the day, and the key rights which these people were given make this clear to me. I've explained to you several times in this thread that Torah slavery isn't anywhere near the same as colonial slavery, yet you have heard only what you wish to hear. Which is what I expected since you have hardened your heart and rejected God, and you look for anything even if it is based on falsehood to justify your position. I'm just asking you to be at least open minded.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Because they don't matter. There is no passage in Exodus 21, or any other chapter in the Bible that contradict that passage. It stands as it is. You can't get around it by simply saying "Look over there!" and then running away.

    I've explained this adequately between the difference between civil laws, and moral laws. The Torah doesn't punish for not rising before the aged, or not profaning your daughter by letting her become a prostitute, or not leaving crops at the edges of your field to be gathered, or to put a stumbling block before the deaf and the blind (Leviticus 19). Why? Due to these being moral and not civil laws.

    Not oppressing the foreigner or the alien is a moral law, considering all to be your fellow Israelite because they were formerly slaves in Egypt is a moral law. These two things should have been in consideration by the slave masters at the time. However what will be punished by civil law is murder. Clear difference, yet both binding.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    I'm not claiming you are ignorant of it, I imagine you know perfectly well what the passage says and what it means. But you are caught in a bind because you cannot rational such a law against what you want God to be. So you choose to pretend that it doesn't actually matter that much.

    Just did in the previous passage. It's makes sense to me, it explains how the Torah is laid out and how the modern Christian should view it.

    1) Judicial laws are fulfilled as Torah bound Israel does not exist anymore, rather we are bound by the laws of the State as described in Romans ch 13.

    2) Ceremonial laws such as sacrificing animals have been fulfilled as Christ atones for our sins through His crucifixion. He is the Lamb of God who has been slain for the sins of the world, those who believe in Him will be passed over at the judgement, but those who don't will be accountable for their transgressions due to not having sought forgiveness.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    These are lists of laws. There is nothing that contradicts or gets around that instruction in any other part of the Bible.

    No there isn't anything that contradicts this Torah law, however there are Torah laws suggesting that moral considerations should have come into account before a case like this would be brought before the Sanhedrin. Any objective reader reading the laws commanding respect to the foreigner under the justification that Israel was once enslaved would see that this makes sense.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    This is what God sanctioned them to do. He didn't sanction them to have homosexual sex, or work on Saturday, or let mildew grow in their homes, but he did let them beat their slaves and take their wives as there own.

    Your excuses for why he allowed this are pathetic.

    You claim that my argument is pathetic yet I have made a rather clear case for why this is so, in this post and in my previous posts. How about you actually engage in the argument instead of resorting to saying "Yeah, Dave was right".

    I know that you have the ability to argue your points well Wicknight, and indeed you are intelligent, as are many other posters here, but so far you haven't offered any form of elaboration on any of the other passages I have brought up which are crucial factors to be considered when reading the isolated verse that Dave mentioned, you have simply resorted to ignoring any of the other points I have made.

    If they are pathetic, you should be able to easily dismiss my usage of other scriptures on a case by case basis. You haven't hence I can conclude that there isn't a real case for this.

    You know it's a shame that there aren't any Jews on Boards.ie (or at least none that look at this forum) the discussion could be so much more interesting.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Relevance? There was no point of making slavery a sin if God had guaranteed essential rights to the people who it affected even giving them redress and sanctuary if they should have been mistreated by their masters, however there was cases that slaves liked working under their masters so much that they even agreed to stay with them for lifetime and to work for them. (Exodus 21:5).
    Have you actually read Exodus 21:5?

    The slave must be set free after 6 years but the master keeps the wife he gave him and the children from that marriage

    If he ever wants to be with his wife again (crazy idea I know) he has to give up his freedom and remain a slave forever. His freedom is meaningless. This is before we getting into the whole notion of the rights of the wife (given to one man and then given back to another)

    This law is describing human beings as if they were property. In fact that is what it actually says. The wife, given to the slave but remains the property of the master, and all children that result in the transaction remain the property of the master.

    It is like the provision in my contract that says all work I produce while on hours from my employer remains the property of my employer. Except we are talking about people

    I find it ridiculous that you rail against the objectification of people in other threads yet argue here that this was all ok, that it was basically nothing more than the ancient version of labour laws

    How can you possibly think that is ok? What civil rights do you think that law is protecting?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I don't consider Torah slavery to be wrong, but that that was the labour of the day, and the key rights which these people were given make this clear to me. I've explained to you several times in this thread that Torah slavery isn't anywhere near the same as colonial slavery, yet you have heard only what you wish to hear.

    Only what I want to hear? I can read it Jakkass, it is all there in black and white.

    You quote a law that says a slave is to be set free after 7 years but his wife and children remain the property of the slave owner and you talk about this protecting "key rights" of people.

    And then you tell me I am only hearing what I want to hear???


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    Only what I want to hear? I can read it Jakkass, it is all there in black and white.

    You quote a law that says a slave is to be set free after 7 years but his wife and children remain the property of the slave owner and you talk about this protecting "key rights" of people.

    And then you tell me I am only hearing what I want to hear???

    Yes I am telling you this, because you have ignored every other citation that I gave and focus on just one that you find convenient. Sounds to me that you are only dealing with what you want to hear. Theres no point in dealing with the Biblical text if you aren't willing to discuss all passages to do with slavery and all passages to do with the rights that these people had.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Yes I am telling you this, because you have ignored every other citation that I gave and focus on just one that you find convenient.

    I have not ignored any of your citations. Unfortunately for the time I'm never going to get back I have read all of them in detail. It reminds me of the Creationist thread where we are constantly being told that the answers are in this article on this website, only to have us read the article and find no answers.

    The problem is that there is nothing in them that actually explains any of this. It simply glosses over it, demonstrating that they have no better way of explaining any of this away than you do.

    You have ignored the points I've made about this being nothing like labour laws, or the nonsense of the idea that God some how had to let a little bit of slavery in to keep the piece.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Theres no point in dealing with the Biblical text if you aren't willing to discuss all passages to do with slavery and all passages to do with the rights that these people had.

    You keep saying we should discuss other passages, any passages other than the ones that detail the horrible condition that slaves found themselves in in the Old Testament.

    Why can you not simply look at the passages themselves. Why the insistence that we must discuss everything but these specific passages?

    You said that Exodus 21:5 protected the fundamental "rights" of the slave in Hebrew times. Can you justify such a ridiculous assertion when 21:5 explains that the slave's wife and children remain the property of the slave master?

    If you have another passage that enlightens and demonstrates that that is all wrong by all means introduce that, but you know you don't. The meaning is perfectly clear, the slave and his wife and his children are the property of the slave master.

    It is slavery. it is slavery in its most ugly form, people as property, ownership of people.

    As I said already you rail against modern sexual society objectifying people, but here you say you find nothing improper about people owning people as one owns a toaster.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    The problem is that there is nothing in them that actually explains any of this. It simply glosses over it, demonstrating that they have no better way of explaining any of this away than you do.

    Of course they do, you've been ignoring my previous point about the distinction between moral and civil if you still conclude that there is nothing in them that explains this.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    You have ignored the points I've made about this being nothing like labour laws, or the nonsense of the idea that God some how had to let a little bit of slavery in to keep the piece.

    No I haven't ignored them, but rather haven't accepted them because I consider said judgement to be in error. Rather different.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    You keep saying we should discuss other passages, any passages other than the ones that detail the horrible condition that slaves found themselves in in the Old Testament.

    I don't consider it horrible when you understand how the other Torah commands should influence it.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Why can you not simply look at the passages themselves. Why the insistence that we must discuss everything but these specific passages?

    I have. Hence after reading them I cite them.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    You said that Exodus 21:5 protected the fundamental "rights" of the slave in Hebrew times. Can you justify such a ridiculous assertion when 21:5 explains that the slave's wife and children remain the property of the slave master?

    No, Exodus 21:5 does show that some people wanted to stay with their masters and were happy with the conditions they were treated under. Indicating that some masters would have taken into account their responsibility to treat the alien as their fellow Israelite as commanded of them in the next chapter, Leviticus 19, and Deuteronomy 10. If people took into account all the Torah laws (moral and civil) that were binding upon them, then measures such as murdering ones slave described in Exodus 21 wouldn't have to be punished with by the Sanhedrin at all. It's not a ridiculous assertion when the Torah itself makes it clear that these people had clear rights.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    If you have another passage that enlightens and demonstrates that that is all wrong by all means introduce that, but you know you don't. The meaning is perfectly clear, the slave and his wife and his children are the property of the slave master.

    I believe you are the one arguing that Torah slavery is wrong, not I. Therefore you should be the one who provides the textual evidence that Torah slavery is wrong.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    It is slavery. it is slavery in its most ugly form, people as property, ownership of people.

    I don't consider it ugly as discussed in previous posts clearly, and I have even made a case that it isn't.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    As I said already you rail against modern sexual society objectifying people, but here you say you find nothing improper about people owning people as one owns a toaster.

    Lust is a rather different thing than having willing labour (bear in mind that they had the right to flee at any stage should they have been abused as in Deuteronomy 23 another passage you have full well ignored.) Pornography, prostitution amongst other things is wrong because it discourages from being in a stable marriage and encourages promiscuity and in many cases adultery.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    No, Exodus 21:5 does show that some people wanted to stay with their masters and were happy with the conditions they were treated under.
    "Wanted to stay with their masters" :confused::confused::confused:

    Because the master had their WIFE AND CHILDREN!!!
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Indicating that some masters would have taken into account their responsibility to treat the alien as their fellow Israelite as commanded of them in the next chapter, Leviticus 19, and Deuteronomy 10
    Alien means foreigner, not slave.

    But lets look again at what Exodus says about slaves and property

    20 "If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, 21 but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.

    If a master beats his slave, male or female, with a rod and he does not die he will not be punished because the slave is his property. He can beat a slave all he likes, so long as he doesn't kill him.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    If people took into account all the Torah laws (moral and civil) that were binding upon them, then measures such as murdering ones slave described in Exodus 21 wouldn't have to be punished with by the Sanhedrin at all.
    Which would make Exodus 21 pointless, which stongly suggests that your interpretation of the other verse is way way off (ie thinking "alien" or "foreigner" applies to captured slaves rather than to traveling traders)
    Jakkass wrote: »
    It's not a ridiculous assertion when the Torah itself makes it clear that these people had clear rights.

    Black slaves in America had "clear rights". That wasn't the problem, the problem was that their "rights" were an absolute joke (the right not to be lynched unless they had done something that deserved lynching, which was pretty much anything)

    To talk about these laws protecting the "rights" of slaves when they describe the "correct" way to beat and rape them, is not only ridiculous it is horrific.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    I believe you are the one arguing that Torah slavery is wrong, not I. Therefore you should be the one who provides the textual evidence that Torah slavery is wrong.

    Have you not read Exodus?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Lust is a rather different thing than having willing labour (bear in mind that they had the right to flee at any stage should they have been abused as in Deuteronomy 23 another passage you have full well ignored.)

    The "right" to flee. Is that a joke?

    They have a right NOT TO BE SLAVES Jakkass. The idea that these passages are protecting their rights by allowing them to run away if they wish is utterly ridiculous.

    Would you have argued that 150 years ago that slavery in the USA would have been ok so long as the slaves had the right not to go back to their plantations if they managed to escape?

    You also ignore that "willing labour" applied to male Israelites. Female Israelites were sold by their parents and were not freed after 7 years, neither were foreign slaves bought from foreign lands, or captured prisoners of war.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Pornography, prostitution amongst other things is wrong because it discourages from being in a stable marriage and encourages promiscuity and in many cases adultery.

    And you said "lust" is wrong because it objectifies other people. And yet you are arguing here that the Old Testament form of slavery, where men women and children are considered the property of other people, is perfectly fine.

    This is the nonsense of Christian "morality".


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    "Wanted to stay with their masters" :confused::confused::confused:

    Because the master had their WIFE AND CHILDREN!!!

    That isn't what the text says however:
    But if the slave declares, ‘I love my master, my wife, and my children; I will not go out a free person’,

    Note that master, wife and children are all separate factors in the sentence. However then again, this is the civil law in comparison to moral law again. The master isn't obliged to let the slave leave with his wife and children under the civil law, but it would be in the moral interest of the master to in the course of loving his neighbour as himself, or treating the foreigner as a fellow Israelite.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Alien means foreigner, not slave.

    Wicknight this doesn't cut it, just actually read the passages concerning mistreatment of the alien and see the reasoning that is given by the author concerning this:
    You shall not oppress a resident alien; you know the heart of an alien, for you were aliens in the land of Egypt.
    The alien who resides with you shall be to you as the citizen among you; you shall love the alien as yourself, for you were aliens in the land of Egypt: I am the Lord your God.
    You shall also love the stranger, for you were strangers in the land of Egypt.

    In the last chapter cited it even says the following of God in his relationship with the stranger and the outcast just to get into a bit more of the context concerning the passage:
    For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who is not partial and takes no bribe, who executes justice for the orphan and the widow, and who loves the strangers, providing them with food and clothing.

    Interesting now in all of these passages that mention to love the alien, the reasoning behind it is because of Israel's experience as slaves in Egypt. You claim that aliens are marked as different to slaves. This is ridiculous if we consider the reasoning behind why this was was because of the slavery in Egypt. How could Israel impose the same conditions on slaves as they had been put under in Egypt without looking like hypocrites?

    Well my conclusion is they didn't put them under the same conditions, but rather significantly improved the rights of slaves. The civil Torah allows for redress in cases of abuse, rest on the Shabbat, the freedom to go out as other people do. The freedom to find refuge in the case that they are being abused. This sounds significantly different to slavery that I know.

    This is the Jewish context, in the Christian context in the Apostolic writings concerning slaves it is solidified even further:
    There is no longer Jew or Greek, there is no longer slave or free, there is no longer male and female; for all of you are one in Christ Jesus.

    The insistence that slaves must be the equal to others in the community is central to Christian morality, and that women and foreigners must be equal is also central to it.
    Masters, treat your slaves justly and fairly, for you know that you also have a Master in heaven.
    And, masters, do the same to them. Stop threatening them, for you know that both of you have the same Master in heaven, and with him there is no partiality.

    Interestingly the subject of partiality seems to link the Christian context of Ephesians 6:9, to the Jewish context of Deuteronomy 10:17-18.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    But lets look again at what Exodus says about slaves and property

    20 "If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished, 21 but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.

    If a master beats his slave, male or female, with a rod and he does not die he will not be punished because the slave is his property. He can beat a slave all he likes, so long as he doesn't kill him.

    I've already explained the distinction between judicial and moral in my last few posts:

    Moral: Do not oppress the foreigner. Treat your neighbour as yourself. Treat the foreigner as your fellow Israelite as you were once enslaved in Egypt.

    Judicial: If in the case that a slave dies, the case must be tried by the Sanhedrin.

    Your outrage seems to come from the notion that the slave master won't be punished for injuring the slave, which is a fair objection. I personally would fear God's punishment much more than that of the Sanhedrin.

    As is quoted from in Romans 12:19
    Beloved never avenge yourselves, but leave room for the wrath of God; for it is written, 'Venegeance is mine, I will repay says the Lord.'
    Venegeance is mine, and recompense for the time when there foot shall slip; because the day of their calamity is at hand, there doom comes swiftly

    If we look back to Deuteronomy 10:17-18 it makes clear that God will also execute justice and has done in the past.

    Wicknight wrote: »
    Which would make Exodus 21 pointless, which stongly suggests that your interpretation of the other verse is way way off (ie thinking "alien" or "foreigner" applies to captured slaves rather than to traveling traders)

    This is nonsense as the justification for treating the foreigner as an Israelite is due to the slave experience in Egypt. The reason not to oppress comes from this understanding. Hence the commandments concerning aliens are binding on all aliens, and the commandment concerning treating ones neighbour as oneself is well binding on all Israelites in the Torah, and all people in Luke 10 in the Christian context. You argue because they are slaves they are no longer either: 1) Israelites, or 2) Gentiles which is absurd and you would need to substantiate this understanding for it to have any weight.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Black slaves in America had "clear rights". That wasn't the problem, the problem was that their "rights" were an absolute joke (the right not to be lynched unless they had done something that deserved lynching, which was pretty much anything)

    I asked you to cite this as to clear it up in a previous post. Where are you getting this from?
    Wicknight wrote: »
    To talk about these laws protecting the "rights" of slaves when they describe the "correct" way to beat and rape them, is not only ridiculous it is horrific.

    Where is there anything concerning rape?
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Have you not read Exodus?

    I wouldn't be posting this if I hadn't. I've read the Torah about 3 times through, reading certain sections more than that.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    The "right" to flee. Is that a joke?

    Evidently not, it concerns a right to redress that was granted in the case that slaveholders abused their power. Authorities were told not to abuse fleeing slaves but rather to give them sanctuary.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    They have a right NOT TO BE SLAVES Jakkass. The idea that these passages are protecting their rights by allowing them to run away if they wish is utterly ridiculous.

    Indeed they did, and in most cases they actually elected to, in cases where people couldn't provide for their families they were taken in to do work and to be supported. In other cases such as penalties for stealing which required to pay twofold in return, or to pay fivefold in the case of stealing an ox or other essential farm animals (Exodus 22:1) to make up for their crime.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Would you have argued that 150 years ago that slavery in the USA would have been ok so long as the slaves had the right not to go back to their plantations if they managed to escape?

    I wouldn't no, as this is only one of the rights that I have discussed that I was discussing. Again, taking an isolated verse to claim that I made an argument I didn't make. I never said it was purely on the case that they were allowed to flee.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    You also ignore that "willing labour" applied to male Israelites. Female Israelites were sold by their parents and were not freed after 7 years, neither were foreign slaves bought from foreign lands, or captured prisoners of war.

    I don't ignore this they have the redress to find sanctuary if they are oppressed. As for female Israelites being sold into slavery, I thought this was due to financial cause or fears for their safety rather than anything else.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    And you said "lust" is wrong because it objectifies other people. And yet you are arguing here that the Old Testament form of slavery, where men women and children are considered the property of other people, is perfectly fine.

    They are considered as people by God consistently, and masters are urged to treat their slaves as people also. So I'm yet to see the direct comparison with someone who only sees someone else as a sexual object, as in the case of a prostitute.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    This is the nonsense of Christian "morality".

    Dealing with the judicial Torah specifically would actually be Jewish morality. Judicial Torah isn't binding on Christians the law of the state is as in Romans 13 as I explained earlier. Christians are under the moral laws of Torah, not the ceremonial or judicial as they have been fulfilled by Jesus Christ.

    This discussion on the judicial laws of the State of Israel emerged with Dave trying to associate the laws on slavery to a modern Christian context, when no Christian attempts to suggest that the judicial law of Israel is even binding on them. I did feel the need to clear the issue up though.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 7,794 ✭✭✭JC 2K3


    Wikipedia wrote:
    Slavery is a form of forced labor where a person is compelled to work for another (sometimes called "the master" or "slave owner").[1] Slaves are held against their will from the time of their capture, purchase, or birth, and are deprived of the right to leave, to refuse to work, or to receive compensation (such as wages) in return for their labor.
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery

    Would you disagree with this, Jakkass?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    No, I don't agree with that JC2K3, that isn't even what is described in the Torah:
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_and_religion#Slavery_in_the_Bible

    Read the sections on Judaism and Christianity and you will gather my view rather quickly. People must be treated justly and with respect as the Torah, the Gospels, and the Apostolic writings command.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Read the sections on Judaism and Christianity and you will gather my view rather quickly. People must be treated justly and with respect as the Torah, the Gospels, and the Apostolic writings command.

    But that is the point. That was "justly and with respect"

    That is why I keep mentioning the slave codes of the USA. The slave owners who signed up to those rules, as barbaric as they were, thought they were being quite reasonable

    If the law defines that it is ok to beat your slave so long as you don't kill him, or that it is ok to retain his wife and children if you set him free, and then some where else there is a vague nicety about how you should treat everyone with respect and love, then THAT IS treating them with respect and love. It is following the law.

    For the Israelites there was no difference between moral and civil law. There was just the law.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    If the law defines that it is ok to beat your slave so long as you don't kill him, or that it is ok to retain his wife and children if you set him free, and then some where else there is a vague nicety about how you should treat everyone with respect and love, then THAT IS treating them with respect and love. It is following the law.

    The same law that allows slaves to find sanctuary, the same law that even commands masters to give liberally to their slaves when they are going to leave and start afresh on their own as thanks for their labour as below:
    And when you send a male slave out from you a free person, you shall not send him out empty-handed. Provide liberally out of your flock, your threshing-floor, and your wine press, thus giving to him some of the bounty with which the Lord your God has blessed you. Remember that you were a slave in the land of Egypt, and the Lord your God redeemed you; for this reason I lay this command upon you today. But if he says to you, ‘I will not go out from you’, because he loves you and your household, since he is well off with you, then you shall take an awl and thrust it through his earlobe into the door, and he shall be your slave for ever. You shall do the same with regard to your female slave.

    See you discuss about the Bible being vague in some respects, and perhaps you are right if you take certain verses which demand a general role of love to ones neighbour. However there are also specific passages as to how one should treat one another. The passage quoted previously is one of the latter passages.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    For the Israelites there was no difference between moral and civil law. There was just the law.

    Of course there was.

    Judicial laws were dealt with by the Sanhedrin a council of the Jewish High Priests, and Moral laws such as not trimming the edges of your crops to be left to the poor, giving to charity or begrudging wages.

    For example in cases of disputed ownership as in Exodus 22:9 the two parties are brought before the Sanhedrin for a hearing. The one who is deemed to have lied is to owe the other two times what the item was worth.

    Whereas in Deuteronomy 24:15 concerning delaying the payment of wages it says:
    You shall not withold the wages of poor and needy labourers, whether other Israelites or those who reside in your land in one of your towns. You shall pay them their wages daily before sunset, because they are poor and the livelihood depends on them; otherwise they might cry to the LORD against you and you would incur guilt.

    There is a difference between being accountable before the Sanhedrin and being accountable before the God of Israel. Some sins were merely before God, and others were to be punished by the community.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    Jakkass wrote: »
    The same law that allows slaves to find sanctuary, the same law that even commands masters to give liberally to their slaves when they are going to leave and start afresh on their own as thanks for their labour as below:

    Yes. The law that regulates slavery

    That is the whole point. This is describing Godly sanctioned slavery. Signed stamped and approved by your favourite deity. Your assertion that it is little more than labour laws is ridiculous. It is slavery, pure and simple.

    The argument that it was a nicer form of slavery than other forms of slavery is rather ridiculous as well. Nice slavery is still slavery.

    Do you think the captured soldier who was bought at market is thinking Wow, this is much better than not being a slave

    Do you think the wife of a slave who is separated from his husband and forced to remain in service to her master is thinking I'm so glad God allows this to happen?
    Jakkass wrote: »
    However there are also specific passages as to how one should treat one another. The passage quoted previously is one of the latter passages.

    The South Carolina Slave Code defined the punishment for killing a slave to be payment of 700 pounds. Killing a slave in a heated state, 350 pounds.

    So clearly the South Carolinians had sense of justifice and respect for the rights of a slave. You can't just go around killing slaves without punishment.
    Jakkass wrote: »
    Of course there was.

    Not wasn't, such arbitrary distinction was an invention of Christians in the middle ages. As J. Daniel Hays puts it (famous atheist that he was)
    So the traditional approach to the Mosaic Law, which divides it into moral, civil, and ceremonial categories, suffers from three major weaknesses: It is arbitrary and without any textual support, it ignores the narrative context, and it fails to reflect the significant implications of the change from Old Covenant to New Covenant. This approach, therefore, is inadequate as a hermeneutic method for interpreting and applying the Law.

    http://www.biblicalstudies.org.uk/article_law_hays.html

    The idea that these laws on slavery can be excused because it was just civil law, and that there was a higher moral law that made slavery safe fair and acceptable, is nonsense. There was simply the law.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Wicknight wrote: »
    Yes. The law that regulates slavery

    That is the whole point. This is describing Godly sanctioned slavery. Signed stamped and approved by your favourite deity. Your assertion that it is little more than labour laws is ridiculous. It is slavery, pure and simple.

    I disagree that it was the same as colonial slavery by any circumstance, and I think that when taking the whole situation into account it was actually a rather fair and reasonable way of carrying out their affairs in Biblical Israel. I've explained to you that this law is by no means a guiding principle in modern Christianity, but I do believe that the Torah was a good framework for the Jews to conduct their lives under and is what Christian law is effectively based on if you read the Gospels and the rest of the New Testament particularly in the case of Paul you will see that there is a high level of cross referencing and citation to the Torah.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    The argument that it was a nicer form of slavery than other forms of slavery is rather ridiculous as well. Nice slavery is still slavery.

    No my argument is that Torah slavery is a rather different thing to slavery at all.
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Do you think the captured soldier who was bought at market is thinking Wow, this is much better than not being a slave

    Wicknight wrote: »
    Do you think the wife of a slave who is separated from his husband and forced to remain in service to her master is thinking I'm so glad God allows this to happen?

    I've explained this in previous posts, through the means of looking at both judicial and moral aspects of it.

    Wicknight wrote: »
    The South Carolina Slave Code defined the punishment for killing a slave to be payment of 700 pounds. Killing a slave in a heated state, 350 pounds.

    So clearly the South Carolinians had sense of justifice and respect for the rights of a slave. You can't just go around killing slaves without punishment.

    I wouldn't consider the payment as the only issue involved. There are a lot more aspects to Torah law that ensure the safety of slaves, you would have to cite cases of this in relation to the South Carolina Slave Code, and on some of the other related subjects such as being able to seek sanctuary and refuge in the case of abuse, and allowing the possibility for slaves to be emancipated and to start their own career (in the Torah it's agricultural (Deut 15) but taking this in context to the time this could be another field of work).
    Wicknight wrote: »
    Not wasn't, such arbitrary distinction was an invention of Christians in the middle ages. As J. Daniel Hays puts it (famous atheist that he was)

    I don't consider it the invention of Christians, but rather a Christian interpretation of something that is made clear from how the Torah is written. You'd be right in saying that scholars such as Aquinas, and Augustine noted these things in their writings. The difference between laws which are punishable, and moral laws is striking. In most modern Bible translations they even have headings which indicate which as "Social and Moral Laws".
    Wicknight wrote: »
    http://www.biblicalstudies.org.uk/article_law_hays.html

    The idea that these laws on slavery can be excused because it was just civil law, and that there was a higher moral law that made slavery safe fair and acceptable, is nonsense. There was simply the law.

    I'll read the link later.

    I don't aim to excuse it, I am to seek a fuller understanding about it, and how moral laws were just as binding on these people as civil.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 321 ✭✭CPT. SURF


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Relevance? There was no point of making slavery a sin if God had guaranteed essential rights to the people who it affected even giving them redress and sanctuary if they should have been mistreated by their masters, however there was cases that slaves liked working under their masters so much that they even agreed to stay with them for lifetime and to work for them. (Exodus 21:5).

    This is really terrifying. You are on a slippery slope with that kind of thinking. The suggestion that some people liked working under their "masters". Wow, you scare the absolute crap out of me.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,805 ✭✭✭Calibos


    I'm afraid to go into the Christianity forum in case I am tempted to read a thread and my head explodes or I inadvertently give myself brain-damage from banging my head repeatedly off my desk. But can someone clarify if this slavery sanctioning Jakkass is one of the 'special' contributers to the Creationism thread or one of the 'moderate' posters over there.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 9,788 ✭✭✭MrPudding


    Calibos wrote: »
    I'm afraid to go into the Christianity forum in case I am tempted to read a thread and my head explodes or I inadvertently give myself brain-damage from banging my head repeatedly off my desk. But can someone clarify if this slavery sanctioning Jakkass is one of the 'special' contributers to the Creationism thread or one of the 'moderate' posters over there.
    I always thought he was one of the more moderate types...

    MrP


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