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Inerrancy of scripture?

Tim_Murphy · 2008-12-23 08:21:40

I asked this question of PDN on a thread in the A&A forum but the thread went off in a different direction and my question was unanswered. I’ll ask it again here, the question not being aimed at anybody in particular. PDN said: I’m not certain as to how common this opinion is within Christianity but as I said on the other…

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#32 05-01-2009 05:33PM

hivizman

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PDN wrote: »

I have read that Joachim and Heli are both variations of the same name - Eliachim, meaning 'God will establish'.

Yes, there's certainly Biblical evidence of the equivalence of Joachim and Eliachim:

Pharaoh Neco made Eliakim son of Josiah king in place of his father Josiah, and changed his name to Jehoiakim. But he took Jehoahaz away; he came to Egypt, and died there.
[2 Kings 23:34, NRSV Anglicized Edition]

Of course, the authority for the name "Joachim" as Mary's father is the non-canonical Gospel of James. Presumably the "inerrancy thesis" would not regard an apocryphal gospel as outweighing a canonical gospel, particularly if a plausible reconciliation can be suggested for the two sources.

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