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the Atemporal Universe - Resolving the Problem of Time

2

Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    This is a very simple point.

    If one assumes that the speed of light is always constant, then the signals reach the clock at T/2.

    Do you see, you don't assume the time to reach them is the same, that fact is derived from the constancy of the speed of light.

    Something derived is not an assumption.
    I think you must mean that it is derived mathematically, from the chosen coordinate system because it isn't derived from observation. All that can be derived from the observations is that the Galilean Principle of Relativity extends to simultaneity/synchronisation such that there is no experiment which a co-moving observer can perform to determine the simultaneity of events in their frame of reference.

    The mathematical derivation essentially represents a prediction of the Einsteinian interpretation. It is a key prediction of the theory upon which the whole concept of the Relativity of Simultaneity rests. It is of course a prediction whose resut must be assumed in order to prop up the notion of RoS.

    Even further than that, it is a prediction which is, it would seem, entirely untestable. This isn't a desirable feature for physical theories from what I gather.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    I think you must mean that it is derived mathematically, from the chosen coordinate system because it isn't derived from observation.
    ....
    Even further than that, it is a prediction which is, it would seem, entirely untestable. This isn't a desirable feature for physical theories from what I gather.
    All physical theories have a point where you are stating something "axiomatically". With pure observations you'd have no theory.

    Consider the path of a particle in the presence of one solenoid and the path of a particle in the presence of another with a different chemical battery. Observationally the paths are just different and that's as far a simple observation can go.

    Electromagentism shows all such paths correspond to paths of particles in response to a vector field generated by the current in the solenoid in a form made by Maxwell's equations.

    This is the ontological assumption of electromagnetism. That there are entities B, E, J etc obeying a set of differential equations and it is due to their action that we have these paths.

    Observationally there are just a bunch of paths. I can never observationally prove that the paths "must" come from an E, B, J field etc.

    Similarly one can never prove that the speed of light is constant in the way Einstein claims absolutely. However it begins to get difficult to explain when the relationship holds precisely no matter how short the two-way trip is or in what direction. You have to start inventing substance and velocity dependent coefficients for every reflective substance. Einstein's claim is the most economical conceptually and mathematically. All other solutions have to be over fitted to the data.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    Maybe it's a case of crossed wires but, in section 5 of your paper you say

    "under the Einsteinian paradigm an observer can explain their own observations but they cannot reconcile those observation with those of their counterpart – as represented by the video footage. That is, when Alice and Bob view the other’s video footage they will see that their clocks are not synchronised. There’s no way to explain the video footage while maintaining the assumption that their clocks are synchronised."

    I interpreted this as a claim that the orthodox geometric account of relativity results in an inconcistency between assumptions held by different observers.

    Would you, instead, agree that the orthodox account of relativity does not result in an inconsistency between assumptions held by different observers since, under the orthodox account of relativity, clock synchronisation if a frame-dependent description?
    Thank you for taking the time to read that far!

    I simply meant that she cannot reconcile Bob's observational evidence with her own assumption. She instead must disagree with Bob's observations, otherwise she must accept the notion that the clocks on board her spaceship/platform are both synchronised with each other and not syncronised with each other. That is, that the light signals from her emitter [on board her spaceship], made physical contact with the clocks [on board her spaceship] both simultaneously and non-simultaneously. To re-iterate this all happens inside her spaceship during the single synchronisation procedure.

    Either way, that isn't the key point. The key point is that the conclusion of RoS must, as a matter of necessity, be assumed.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Sure.
    Do you accept that one of those interpretations, which is empirically and mathematically equivalent, is based on the idea that the time from one emitter to clock A does not equal the time from emitter to clock B?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    The key point is that the conclusion of RoS must, as a matter of necessity, be assumed
    But it's not assumed, it is derived from the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    All physical theories have a point where you are stating something "axiomatically". With pure observations you'd have no theory.

    Consider the path of a particle in the presence of one solenoid and the path of a particle in the presence of another with a different chemical battery. Observationally the paths are just different and that's as far a simple observation can go.

    Electromagentism shows all such paths correspond to paths of particles in response to a vector field generated by the current in the solenoid in a form made by Maxwell's equations.

    This is the ontological assumption of electromagnetism. That there are entities B, E, J etc obeying a set of differential equations and it is due to their action that we have these paths.

    Observationally there are just a bunch of paths. I can never observationally prove that the paths "must" come from an E, B, J field etc.

    Similarly one can never prove that the speed of light is constant in the way Einstein claims absolutely. However it begins to get difficult to explain when the relationship holds precisely no matter how short the two-way trip is. You have to start inventing substance and velocity dependent coefficients for every reflective substance. Einstein's claim is the most economical conceptually and mathematically. All other solutions have to be over fitted to the data.
    A kinematic interpretation is similarly possible without the assumption of simultaneity of events in the stationary frame. It's simply Einstein's theory without assuming the conclusion of RoS.

    As far as the thought experiment can be said to represent the Einsteinian interpretation, we can see where the concluion is assumed. Simply drop the assumption that evets in the stationary frame are simultaneous and you are left with Einstein's theory withou RoS with no reference to an Ether, dynamics, or an absolute reference frame.

    I know it's not as simple as that, and it would have to be stated in a rigorous manner, but the reasoning should lead us to conclude that such a formulation is possible.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    Simply drop the assumption that evets in the stationary frame are simultaneous and you are left with Einstein's theory withou RoS with no reference to an Ether, dynamics, or an absolute reference frame.
    This point has been made several times to no avail. Simultaneity is not assumed, it is derived from the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.

    This is not an assumption of the theory of relativity. Repeatedly saying it is, when it clearly is not, is pointless. Any textbook on relativity shows the constancy of c isotropically for all observers is the main assumption. Simultaneity in the form you are talking about is derived, not assumed.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    she cannot reconcile Bob's observational evidence with her own assumption.She instead must disagree with Bob's observations, otherwise she must accept the notion that the clocks on board her spaceship/platform are both synchronised with each other and not syncronised with each other. That is, that the light signals from her emitter [on board her spaceship], made physical contact with the clocks [on board her spaceship] both simultaneously and non-simultaneously. To re-iterate this all happens inside her spaceship during the single synchronisation procedure.

    If you want to use a thought experiment to interrogate a physical theory as it is normally presented, it's vital that you relate your thought experiment to the physical theory to be interrogated. You have made a number of statements above, none of which follow from the theory of relativity applied to this thought experiment. According to relativity:

    i) She has no problem reconciling Bob's observations with any and all assumptions she makes.
    ii) She entirely agrees with Bob's observations.
    iii) She does not have to conclude the clocks are both synchronised and not synchronised.
    iii) She does not have to conclude the light beams struck the clocks simultaneously and non-simultaneously

    All the reasoning you've carried out around the thought experiment has been reasoning from premises at odds with relativity.
    Either way, that isn't the key point. The key point is that the conclusion of RoS must, as a matter of necessity, be assumed.

    As Fourier mentions: RoS is a consequence of the orthodox theory of relativity, not a postulate of it. It only has to be assumed by Alice if she starts with some other theory, and she wants to include it later in some ad hoc manner.
    Do you accept that one of those interpretations, which is empirically and mathematically equivalent, is based on the idea that the time from one emitter to clock A does not equal the time from emitter to clock B?

    I'm not sure I understand this question: The normal interpretation says "the time from one emitter to clock A does not equal the time from emitter to clock B" is a frame-dependent claim.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    But it's not assumed, it is derived from the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.
    Fourier wrote: »
    This point has been made several times to no avail. Simultaneity is not assumed, it is derived from the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.

    This is not an assumption of the theory of relativity. Repeatedly saying it is, when it clearly is not, is pointless. Any textbook on relativity shows the constancy of c isotropically for all observers is the main assumption. Simultaneity in the form you are talking about is derived, not assumed.

    I thought I had forgotten to reply to you post above, but I see you're just restating a point I already addressed to which you subsequently replied. I'll try to clarify again.

    You're saying that it is not assumed, that it is derived, but I think you must be conflating the mathematical description used to make predictions with the observational evidence used to verify those predictions. Yes, the value T/2 - for both events - might be derived mathematically from the chosen coordinate system but it isn't derived from observation.

    This mathematical derivation represents a prediction of the theory. Indeed, it is an essential prediction required for one of its most fundamental conclusions, that of RoS; yet, it is a fundamentally untestable prediction according to the very foundational assumptions of the theory itself - rendering that part of the theory unfalsifiable!

    So, the derivation you talk of is simply a prediction. As said, it is not derived from obervation. The veracity of this mathematically derived prediction must be assumed that is, the key foundational observation, pertaining to RoS, must be assumed i.e. we have to assume that the clocks do actually read T/2 for both events.

    Again, what is derived is a prediction. The accuracy of this - critical - prediction is what is assumed. So the theory predicts RoS and the conclusion is assumed!



    It's a bit like assuming that the Flying Spaghetti Monster created the initial conditions of the Universe and then saying that derivations about the current state of the Universe, from that, somehow add validity to conclusions about the FSM's role in the current state of the universe.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    I thought I had forgotten to reply to you post above, but I see you're just restating a point I already addressed to which you subsequently replied. I'll try to clarify again.

    You're saying that it is not assumed, that it is derived, but I think you must be conflating the mathematical description used to make predictions with the observational evidence used to verify those predictions. Yes, the value T/2 - for both events - might be derived mathematically from the chosen coordinate system but it isn't derived from observation.
    It's derived from the assumption of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.

    As I said above all theories have brute assumptions. Similarly Poincaré-Lorentz theory assumes that the two halves of the light beams paths occur at different speeds. This also cannot be directly confirmed. It's an ontological assumption about what is occurring behind the scenes.

    These two different assumptions lead to the same mathematics. In the standard case it's because the structure described by those mathematics, Minkowski space, is assumed to be real, in the Lorentz-Poincaré case it's all a complex illusion due to the odd dynamical properties of the aether.

    Since the former is simpler we usually go with it. Also there doesn't seem to be a clear way to explain General Relativity from the latter. Also when you move to Quantum Field Theory particles that actually live in a Galilean background operate completely differently from those in a Lorentz background. Massless Spin-1 particles for example have different polarization states. To allow the Lorentz-Poincaré picture to be extended to particle physics you'd have to assume there is some complex mechanism in detectors that always "masks" one of the three polarization states of light to make it seem like there are two.

    The whole construct just becomes increasingly ad-hoc and complex.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    If you want to use a thought experiment to interrogate a physical theory as it is normally presented, it's vital that you relate your thought experiment to the physical theory to be interrogated. You have made a number of statements above, none of which follow from the theory of relativity applied to this thought experiment. According to relativity:

    i) She has no problem reconciling Bob's observations with any and all assumptions she makes.
    ii) She entirely agrees with Bob's observations.
    iii) She does not have to conclude the clocks are both synchronised and not synchronised.
    iii) She does not have to conclude the light beams struck the clocks simultaneously and non-simultaneously

    All the reasoning you've carried out around the thought experiment has been reasoning from premises at odds with relativity.
    That part of the argument is somewhat separate to the primary conclusion that is drawn. It is more along the lines of the Einsteinian interpretation conflicting with itself, but it isn't necessary.

    The primary conclusion is that the simultaeity of [clock synchronisation] evens in the stationary system is not supported by observational evidence. The theory makes a critical prediction about the time value on two physical clocks which is entirely untestable by the foundational assumptions of the theory. This accuracy of this prediction - upon which the Relativity of Simultaneity rests - must thereore be assumed. Rendering that aspect of the theory unfalsifiable - but still, clearly requiring the conclusion to be assumed.

    Morbert wrote: »
    As Fourier mentions: RoS is a consequence of the orthodox theory of relativity, not a postulate of it. It only has to be assumed by Alice if she starts with some other theory, and she wants to include it later in some ad hoc manner.
    As a consequence/conclusion of the the theory, predicated on the basis of a prediction about the reading on two physical clocks, a prediction which is untestable under the foundational assumptions of the the theory itself, a prediction whose accuracy must be assumed to be true, it is a consequene/conclusion which is assumed and indeed unfalsifiable under the foundational assumptions of the theory itself.

    Again, just to reiterate, it is entirely based on circular logic.

    Morbert wrote: »
    I'm not sure I understand this question: The normal interpretation says "the time from one emitter to clock A does not equal the time from emitter to clock B" is a frame-dependent claim.
    I'm asking about the alternative interpretation.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    It's derived from the assumption of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.
    The prediction is derived, not the observation. The accuracy of the prediction has to be assumed. The prediction is central to the conclusion of RoS. Assuming that the prediction is correct, RoS follows as a matter of necessity. Dropping the prediction and the assumption means RoS disappears.
    Fourier wrote: »
    As I said above all theories have brute assumptions. Similarly Poincaré-Lorentz theory assumes that the two halves of the light beams paths occur at different speeds. This also cannot be directly confirmed. It's an ontological assumption about what is occurring behind the scenes.
    Relate this to Alice's observation of Bob. While the comoving observer will not be able to determine this, the observations off all other, relatively moving observers, will support this contention.

    Fourier wrote: »
    These two different assumptions lead to the same mathematics. In the standard case it's because the structure described by those mathematics, Minkowski space, is assumed to be real, in the Lorentz-Poincaré case it's all a complex illusion due to the odd dynamical properties of the aether.

    Since the former is simpler we usually go with it. Also there doesn't seem to be a clear way to explain General Relativity from the latter. Also when you move to Quantum Field Theory particles that actually live in a Galilean background operate completely differently from those in a Lorentz background. Massless Spin-1 particles for example have different polarization states. To allow the Lorentz-Poincaré picture to be extended to particle physics you'd have to assume there is some complex mechanism in detectors that always "masks" one of the three polarization states of light to make it seem like there are two.

    The whole construct just becomes increasingly ad-hoc and complex.
    As I've mentioned before, the literature points to the fact that the Lorentz-Poincare interpretation can be formulated without reference to an Ether. I argue that it can be formulated witout reference to an absolute reference frame also.

    As mentioned, it should - I'm inferring - be possible to forumulate a kinemtical interpretation by following Einstein's formalism and dropping the assumption of the one-way speed of light. This would make no reference to an Ether, conspiratorial dynamics, or an absolute reference frame; the mathematics and predictions would remain unchhanged, apart from the untestable notion of RoS.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    That part of the argument is somewhat separate to the primary conclusion that is drawn. It is more along the lines of the Einsteinian interpretation conflicting with itself, but it isn't necessary.

    The primary conclusion is that the simultaeity of [clock synchronisation] evens in the stationary system is not supported by observational evidence. The theory makes a critical prediction about the time value on two physical clocks which is entirely untestable by the foundational assumptions of the theory. This accuracy of this prediction - upon which the Relativity of Simultaneity rests - must thereore be assumed. Rendering that aspect of the theory unfalsifiable - but still, clearly requiring the conclusion to be assumed.

    You're still using terms in your reasoning that aren't theory-neutral. E.g. You say simultaneity is not supported by observational evidence. But according to the theory of relativity, Alice will indeed observe simultaneous events under the standard of measurement specified by her frame of reference. This is what simultaneity means in the context of relativity. If, instead, you mean simultaneity in some non-relativistic sense (like absolute simultaneity), then sure there won't be observational evidence, but that's one of the lessons of relativity.
    As a consequence/conclusion of the the theory, predicated on the basis of a prediction about the reading on two physical clocks, a prediction which is untestable under the foundational assumptions of the the theory itself, a prediction whose accuracy must be assumed to be true, it is a consequene/conclusion which is assumed and indeed unfalsifiable under the foundational assumptions of the theory itself.

    The most charitable way I can read this paragraph is: RoS follows from relativity, and the postulates of relativity are assumed over the postulates of some other alternative theory that makes the same predictions as relativity.

    Am I reading it correctly?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    As I've mentioned before, the literature points to the fact that the Lorentz-Poincare interpretation can be formulated without reference to an Ether. I argue that it can be formulated witout reference to an absolute reference frame also.

    As mentioned, it should - I'm inferring - be possible to forumulate a kinemtical interpretation by following Einstein's formalism and dropping the assumption of the one-way speed of light. This would make no reference to an Ether, conspiratorial dynamics, or an absolute reference frame; the mathematics and predictions would remain unchhanged, apart from the untestable notion of RoS.
    That would mean that the real symmetry group is the Galilean group. Particles under the Galilean group have completely different properties, really truly totally different. So you have to explain why they appear to have the properties they have under the assumption of the reality of Minkowski space, e.g. why light has two polarizations as opposed to three.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    You're still using terms in your reasoning that aren't theory-neutral. E.g. You say simultaneity is not supported by observational evidence. But according to the theory of relativity, Alice will indeed observe simultaneous events under the standard of measurement specified by her frame of reference. This is what simultaneity means in the context of relativity. If, instead, you mean simultaneity in some non-relativistic sense (like absolute simultaneity), then sure there won't be observational evidence, but that's one of the lessons of relativity.
    She won't observe the reading on her co-located, physical clock which coincides with the pertinent events i.e. the photons making physical contact with the clocks she is trying to synchronise.

    She is forced to assume that the prediction made - in accordance with her specified frame of reference - that the same reading on her co-located, physical clock coincides with both of the pertinent events - this is partly what simultaneity means in the physical world. The foundational assumptions of the theory render this prediction untestable. Meaning this prediction, about the relevant reading on a physical clock face, must be assumed to be true - hence the conclusion is assumed.

    The claim as to what Relativity says that Simultaneity is, how it derives predictions, etc. etc. can be reframed in any infinite number of ways, it won't change the fact that in the real-world experimental set-up, the necessary observation simply cannot be made - the foundational assumptions of the theory preclude this possibility! It has to be assumed to be true!
    Morbert wrote: »
    The most charitable way I can read this paragraph is: RoS follows from relativity, and the postulates of relativity are assumed over the postulates of some other alternative theory that makes the same predictions as relativity.

    Am I reading it correctly?
    It's the same point that has been repeated throughout and again above.

    Relativity makes a prediction about the reading on a physical clock coinciding with 2 events. This observation cannot - not even in principle (given the foundational assumptions of the theory - see the light clock convention) - be verified. It is instead assumed to be true i.e. the prediction made about a physical clock is not, nor can it be, observed; it is assumed. The conclusion of RoS rests entirely on this assumption.

    The coordinate system is the map; the experimental set-up is the territory; the map is not the territory. The map has a picture of the Loch Ness Monster drawn in, over Loch Ness. None of the observational evidence contradicts the map but there is no observational evidence that Nessy be in them there waters. The key of the map says that Nessy has to be assumed to be in the lake. The conclusion that Nessy is in the lake is therefore circular.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    That would mean that the real symmetry group is the Galilean group. Particles under the Galilean group have completely different properties, really truly totally different. So you have to explain why they appear to have the properties they have under the assumption of the reality of Minkowski space, e.g. why light has two polarizations as opposed to three.
    Why would it be Galilean?


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    Why would it be Galilean?
    What is the symmetry of the underlying space then if it is not Galilean and not Minkowskian?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    What is the symmetry of the underlying space then if it is not Galilean and not Minkowskian?
    Apologies, this is one of the limitations of my understanding.

    What determines the symmetry of the underlying space, is it the coordinate transformations?

    I'm basing that on
    In physics, a symmetry of a physical system is a physical or mathematical feature of the system (observed or intrinsic) that is preserved or remains unchanged under some transformation
    If so, coordinate transformations would still be done in the same way. The mathematics would be identical and there would be no absolute reference frame.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    Apologies, this is one of the limitations of my understanding.

    What determines the symmetry of the underlying space, is it the coordinate transformations?

    I'm basing that on
    If so, coordinate transformations would still be done in the same way. The mathematics would be identical and there would be no absolute reference frame.
    Its the geometrical structure of the space. Different geometrical structures give rise to different particles.

    This is part of why people don't accept other views of Special Relativity. If let's say General Relativity and Quantum Field Theory hadn't turned out to be relevant to the world we'd probably still have some conflicting views on Einsteins approach vs. Poincaré-Lorentz. They both have subtle unobserved predictions related to their central assumptions and both contradict intuition in some manner.

    However General Relativity and Quantum Field Theory are very hard to explain if you stick to the Poincaré-Lorentz view.

    This has happened before in physics. In Electromagnetism you can replace the Electric and Magnetic force fields with potentials and there was a discussion as to whether the potentials or the fields were the "real" physical structures. In electromagnetism this is essentially unresolvable. However in quantum mechanics there are effects that immediately result from the potential view and are much more difficult to explain via the force fields.

    So two equivalent interpretations are not equivalent upon further development. So it is with Lorentz-Poincaré.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    Its the geometrical structure of the space. Different geometrical structures give rise to different particles.
    How would the geometrical structure be determined? I'm presuming it has something to do with the mathematical formulation but bcos I don't see the mathematics changing I'm struggling to see the issue.

    Fourier wrote: »
    This is part of why people don't accept other views of Special Relativity. If let's say General Relativity and Quantum Field Theory hadn't turned out to be relevant to the world we'd probably still have some conflicting views on Einsteins approach vs. Poincaré-Lorentz. They both have subtle unobserved predictions related to their central assumptions and both contradict intuition in some manner.

    However General Relativity and Quantum Field Theory are very hard to explain if you stick to the Poincaré-Lorentz view.

    This has happened before in physics. In Electromagnetism you can replace the Electric and Magnetic force fields with potentials and there was a discussion as to whether the potentials or the fields were the "real" physical structures. In electromagnetism this is essentially unresolvable. However in quantum mechanics there are effects that immediately result from the potential view and are much more difficult to explain via the force fields.

    So two equivalent interpretations are not equivalent upon further development. So it is with Lorentz-Poincaré.
    The Lorentz-Poincare interpretation was predicated on an absolute reference frame preserving Galilean geometry/symmetry, wasn't it? (Apologies if I've butchered that). But the LP interpretation was predicated on this absolute space and time, isn't that (roughly speaking) the issue you're referring to?

    If so, then the contention is that an LP-style* interpretation can be formulated without reliance upon an absolute reference frame

    The preconceptions of the LP interpretation might confuse the issue, which is why another way of thinking about it would be Einstein's kinematical interpretation, without an assumption of simultaneity of events in the stationary system. Such an interpretation would make no reference to an absolute reference frame. It effectively just extends the Galilean principle of Relativity to the notions of Simultaneity/Synchronization; that is to say, there is no experiment which can determine these.

    Am I right in thinking that no absolute reference frame addresses - at least in part - the issue you raise?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    How would the geometrical structure be determined? I'm presuming it has something to do with the mathematical formulation but bcos I don't see the mathematics changing I'm struggling to see the issue.
    The mathematics of the effective coordinate transformations is unchanged, but the metrical structure of the underlying space is different.
    roosh wrote: »
    The Lorentz-Poincare interpretation was predicated on an absolute reference frame preserving Galilean geometry/symmetry, wasn't it? (Apologies if I've butchered that). But the LP interpretation was predicated on this absolute space and time, isn't that (roughly speaking) the issue you're referring to?
    No, I'm referring to it retaining a different underlying geometric structure. One which doesn't respond to curvature the same way and doesn't give the same symmetry for particles.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    She won't observe the reading on her co-located, physical clock which coincides with the pertinent events i.e. the photons making physical contact with the clocks she is trying to synchronise.

    She is forced to assume that the prediction made - in accordance with her specified frame of reference - that the same reading on her co-located, physical clock coincides with both of the pertinent events - this is partly what simultaneity means in the physical world. The foundational assumptions of the theory render this prediction untestable. Meaning this prediction, about the relevant reading on a physical clock face, must be assumed to be true - hence the conclusion is assumed.

    The claim as to what Relativity says that Simultaneity is, how it derives predictions, etc. etc. can be reframed in any infinite number of ways, it won't change the fact that in the real-world experimental set-up, the necessary observation simply cannot be made - the foundational assumptions of the theory preclude this possibility! It has to be assumed to be true!

    Relativity makes a prediction about the reading on a physical clock coinciding with 2 events. This observation cannot - not even in principle (given the foundational assumptions of the theory - see the light clock convention) - be verified. It is instead assumed to be true i.e. the prediction made about a physical clock is not, nor can it be, observed; it is assumed. The conclusion of RoS rests entirely on this assumption.

    The coordinate system is the map; the experimental set-up is the territory; the map is not the territory. The map has a picture of the Loch Ness Monster drawn in, over Loch Ness. None of the observational evidence contradicts the map but there is no observational evidence that Nessy be in them there waters. The key of the map says that Nessy has to be assumed to be in the lake. The conclusion that Nessy is in the lake is therefore circular.

    Relativity makes predictions about what will happen if Alice places a detector equidistant between two locations (defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference), and registers signals from simultaneous events at those locations (defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference).

    More importantly, the above also affirms my suspicion that what you mean to do is argue that no observation can distinguish between special relativity and some other alternative theory that makes all the same predictions about what we will observe, and that special relativity also contains superfluous assumptions that are dropped in simpler alternatives. But you have misidentified the offending assumption as relativity of simultaneity, as opposed to, say, the universal speed of light.

    There are projects out there attempt to formulate a theory of relativity with weaker assumptions (like Hsu's "extended relativity", which drops the speed of light postulate and uses Edwards transformations instead of Lorentz transformations). It's great that these projects exist, but it's not automatically the case that these alternatives make equivalent predictions, or are as easily generaliseable as special relativity. Special relativity has been, hands down, the most successful project to date in these matters.

    So while any single prediction-observation pair will not uniquely specify a correct theory over all alternatives, you won't be able to use Occam's razor against relativity unless you demonstrate an alternative is just as successful over a wide range of observations.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    The mathematics of the effective coordinate transformations is unchanged, but the metrical structure of the underlying space is different.

    No, I'm referring to it retaining a different underlying geometric structure. One which doesn't respond to curvature the same way and doesn't give the same symmetry for particles.

    How is the underlying metrical structure determined?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    How is the underlying metrical structure determined?
    It's just a description of the true space/spacetime in the model, not the effective one generated by the "quirk" of dynamics that makes things look as if Minkowski space were true.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    Relativity makes predictions about what will happen if Alice places a detector equidistant between two locations (defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference), and registers signals from simultaneous events at those locations (defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference).
    ...
    More importantly, the above also affirms my suspicion that what you mean to do is argue that no observation can distinguish between special relativity and some other alternative theory that makes all the same predictions about what we will observe, and that special relativity also contains superfluous assumptions that are dropped in simpler alternatives. But you have misidentified the offending assumption as relativity of simultaneity, as opposed to, say, the universal speed of light.
    Note the assumption in the emboldened part, that the events are simultaneous in the given frame. That they are "defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference" is simply a restatement of the idea that the synchronisation of clocks must be established by definition i.e. that it must be assumed. It is simply restating what we already have stated about what the Einsteinian interpretation assumess.

    It is from the standards of measurement defined by her frame of reference that we can derive the prediction about the configuration of the pysical system, which predicts that the reading on a clock [colocated with the observer], corresponding to a value of d/c, will coincide with two events at spatially separted clocks.

    That prediction is, under the foundational assumptions of the theory itself, untestable/unverifiiable. Therefore, the prediction must be/can only be assumed to be correct. The conclusion of RoS hangs on the thread of this prediction/assumption.

    It might also be worth pointing out that the interpretation of "Length Contraction" under the Einsteinian interrpretation also rests entirely on the assumption that clocks in the stationary system are synchronised.


    As I said, frame it anyway that you like. The basic fact remains, there is no empirical observation that can be made to verify (or falsify) the claim that the clocks in the given frame are synchronised. The conclusion of RoS rests entirely on this claim.

    It would be like Alice’s belief that the Flying Spaghetti Monster created the initial conditions of the universe. Then, all empirical evidence demonstrates where the initial conditions of the universe came from and there is no sign of the FSM. If Alice’s thesis says that we must establish by definition that the FSM created the initial conditions i.e. we must assume that the FSM created the initial conditions, then of course she will conclude that the FSM is responsible for the universe in its current configuration (derived from the initial conditions). The empirical observation of a Universe in its current configuration will not contradict her story about the FSM being responsible for the current configuration of the Universe. However, the totality of empirical evidence demonstrating where the initial conditions came from (with no sign of the noodly appendage of the FSM) certainly contradicts her assumption. Richard Dawkin’s might use the term “delusional” to describe Alice’s beliefs.

    As it cannot be verified/falsified, it can only be assumed. Given that the totality of empirical evidence demonstrates that the clocks onboard the spaceship are not synchronised, the conclusion of frame dependent simultaneity i.e. the conclusion of RoS hangs entirely the assumption that the clocks onboard the spaceship are synchronised (from the perspective of the comoving observer). Without this assumption, on the part of the comoving observer, the conclusion of RoS simply isn't reached. Thus, the conclusion of RoS that simultaneity is frame depedent, that simultaneity is relative is entirelly assumed i.e. it rests entirely on circular reasoning.

    Again, if a map of the territory says we must assume that the Loch Ness Monster is in Loch Ness, but all empirical observation (including underwater footage of Loch Ness)


    Morbert wrote: »
    There are projects out there attempt to formulate a theory of relativity with weaker assumptions (like Hsu's "extended relativity", which drops the speed of light postulate and uses Edwards transformations instead of Lorentz transformations). It's great that these projects exist, but it's not automatically the case that these alternatives make equivalent predictions, or are as easily generaliseable as special relativity. Special relativity has been, hands down, the most successful project to date in these matters.

    So while any single prediction-observation pair will not uniquely specify a correct theory over all alternatives, you won't be able to use Occam's razor against relativity unless you demonstrate an alternative is just as successful over a wide range of observations.
    Cheers, I will check those out.

    Without wanting to get sidetracked, before resolving the main issue of contention thus far:

    We can substittue the Einteinian interpretation of "the constancy of the speed of light" for an interpretation that says the measurement of the speed of light will always return the same value.

    If we examine Einstein's interpretation of the constancy of light speed, his interpretation doesn't say that the measure the speed of light, conducted by each observer [relative to themselves] will always return a value of c. His thought experiment can be used to demonstrate how each oberver's attempt to measure the speed of light will yield the same value - without resorting to time dilation or length contraction (in the Einsteinian sense).

    What the Einsteinian interpretation does is interpret the constancy of the speed of light to mean that all observers will fit their observations to the idea that the speed of light to is constant relative to themselves and relative to all other observers.

    If Alice measures the speed of light relative to herself she will get a value of c. If she measures it relative to Bob she will get a value of c - v. If she observes Bob attempting to measure the speed of light, she will see that his slowly ticking clock biases his result "conspiring" to give him the same value for the speed of light.

    That is one way in which it could be interpreted. Simply that Bob's clocks conspire to give him the same mesurement for the speed of light. We don't need to rely on any dynamics to explain this or to rely on any asbolute reference frame.

    The Einsteinian interpretation goes further. With "time" dilation implying that Alice can somehow square her measurement of the speed of with an idea that the speed of light is constant relative to all observers. While this is not expressly stated, we can derive it.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    It's just a description of the true space/spacetime in the model, not the effective one generated by the "quirk" of dynamics that makes things look as if Minkowski space were true.
    I have an of what it is, I'm wondering how this description is determined/derived. What is it that gives us the information about the true space/spacetime in the model.

    If it isn't the mathematics, or the coordinate transformations, or it isn't the postulation of an absolute reference frame, from where do we derive statements about the nature of the geometrical structure [required by an interpretation]?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    I wil be offline for the next 3-4 weeks as I am doing a meditation retreat in Thailand and Malaysia, so you guys don't have to reply immediately - assuming that you choose to reply at all.

    Before I sign off for a few weeks, I want to again express my gratitude for the time you guys have taken to engage in discussing the ideas. Either one of us (me) or all of us will be the richer because of it (figuratively speaking, in terms of acquiring knowledge).


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Note the assumption in the emboldened part, that the events are simultaneous in the given frame. That they are "defined by the standards of measurement outlined by her frame of reference" is simply a restatement of the idea that the synchronisation of clocks must be established by definition i.e. that it must be assumed. It is simply restating what we already have stated about what the Einsteinian interpretation assumess.

    It is from the standards of measurement defined by her frame of reference that we can derive the prediction about the configuration of the pysical system, which predicts that the reading on a clock [colocated with the observer], corresponding to a value of d/c, will coincide with two events at spatially separted clocks.

    That prediction is, under the foundational assumptions of the theory itself, untestable/unverifiiable. Therefore, the prediction must be/can only be assumed to be correct. The conclusion of RoS hangs on the thread of this prediction/assumption.

    As I said, frame it anyway that you like. The basic fact remains, there is no empirical observation that can be made to verify (or falsify) the claim that the clocks in the given frame are synchronised. The conclusion of RoS rests entirely on this claim.

    The frame-dependent description of two clocks as synchronised follows deductively from the postulates of special relativity and the application of the Einstein synchronisation procedure. Even if we cannot carry out an experiment involving the clocks that distinguishes special relativity from some alternative, simultaneity is not assumed. Alice's confidence in special relativty would have come from its broad predictive power, its practical successes, and the simplicity of its postulates.

    This would only amount to Flying Spaghetti Monster circular reasoning if Alice assumed special relativity, concluded simultaneity, and concluded special relativity based on simultaneity. She does not do this.
    We can substittue the Einteinian interpretation of "the constancy of the speed of light" for an interpretation that says the measurement of the speed of light will always return the same value.

    Broadly speaking, there seems to be two ways you could do this: i) Adopt some instrumentalist interpretation that treats special relativity like a recipe for making predictions about what we will observe. ii) Construct a formalism not based on a universal speed of light postulate that reproduces all the success of special relativity with simpler commitments.

    Your thesis attempts ii), but it doesn't give special relativity a fair shake, as it misrepresents Alice's conclusions as explained in a previous post.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    The frame-dependent description of two clocks as synchronised follows deductively from the postulates of special relativity and the application of the Einstein synchronisation procedure. Even if we cannot carry out an experiment involving the clocks that distinguishes special relativity from some alternative, simultaneity is not assumed. Alice's confidence in special relativty would have come from its broad predictive power, its practical successes, and the simplicity of its postulates.

    This would only amount to Flying Spaghetti Monster circular reasoning if Alice assumed special relativity, concluded simultaneity, and concluded special relativity based on simultaneity. She does not do this.
    The fact that no experiment can be carried out to verify the synchrony of the clocks means precisely that the simultaneity of the [clock synchronisation] events must be assumed. It may follow deductively from the postulates but so too does the prediction about the clock reading that is supposed to co-incide with both events. Einstein even talks about something similar in the 1905 paper when he talks about the train arriving at 7 O'Clock, with the arrival of the train being simultaneous with the time on the watch. Given that this prediction cannot be validated experimentally, empirically speaking, its accuracy can only be assumed.

    The presence of an alternative explanation for the actual observations Alice makes, only serves to demonstrate that the contention - the clocks in her system are synchronised - is an assumption.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Broadly speaking, there seems to be two ways you could do this: i) Adopt some instrumentalist interpretation that treats special relativity like a recipe for making predictions about what we will observe. ii) Construct a formalism not based on a universal speed of light postulate that reproduces all the success of special relativity with simpler commitments.

    Your thesis attempts ii), but it doesn't give special relativity a fair shake, as it misrepresents Alice's conclusions as explained in a previous post.
    In the paper - I still use the word "paper" for want of a more accurate term - I definitely don't flesh out the issues pertaining to the Einsteinian interpretation fully, or the alternative interpretation I have in mind. That is largely down to my lack of experience in constructing arguments in a rigorous manner from the outset. It is through disscussions like this that I flesh out the ideas - another reason I am grateful for yer engagement. I have had a bit of time to try and clarify my thoughts on the alternative interpretation, which might [hopefully] help to illuminate my thinking.
    Lorentz-Poincare style Interpretation
    I say its an LP style interpretation to differentiate it from the Einsteinian interpretation, but the interpretation I have in mind doesn't presuppose an Ether or absolute reference frame. There are 2 ways I have been thinking about this, one is the LP route, the other is the SR route. I'm not sure which works best for explanatory purposes, but I will try the LP route first.

    Removing the Ether
    Lorentz and Poincare were trying to develop a constructivist theory which is why they were so intent that there must be an Ether. The Ether however was undetectable in the theory and as such could simply be removed to leave an absolute reference frame. This effectively leaves us with a kinematical intepretation, albeit with an undetectable absolute reference frame.

    Removing the absolute referene frame
    We can think of the absolute reference frame as a sort of scaffolding that we can later remove. We need it, in this case, only for the psychological purposes of helping us to imagine a scenario in which Alice's clocks are not synchronised in her own frame.

    Poincare used the absoute reference frame to define the motion of two subsequent reference frames. With the motion of each, defined relative to the absolute reference frame, he then derived the Lorentz transformation for the transfer of co-ordinates between those two frames.

    With this done, and with the absolute reference frame being undetectable, we can simply remove the "scaffolding" and we are left with the two relatively moving frames, with their local, unsynchronised clocks, where length contraction is an issue of measurement arising from the non-synchronised clocks.

    If we go the Einsteinian route, we simply drop the assumption that clocks in the "stationary system" are synchronised. This is obviously the simpler route, theoretically, but when Special Relativity has become inuitive, it might run into cognitive resistance.
    The Conclusions

    Relativity of Simultaneity
    As has been mentioned, there are two parts to the conclusion that simultaneity is reltaive/frame dependent; the first part - "events which are simultaneous in one frame i.e. the "stationary" frame" - cannot be verified experimentally and so it must be assumed. This is borne out by the possible alternative intepretations. The second part - "are not simultaneous in relatively moving frames" - is based on empirical observation - insofar as the thought experiment represents and idealised experiment.

    The alternative interpretation simply drops the untestable assumption/prediction.

    Length Contraction
    If we think about "the Ladder Paradox" and think about how it is resolved. Obviously, it cannot be resolved on the basis of empirical observation, because there could be no possible way that an observation of the ladder both fitting inside the garage and not fitting inside the garage could be made. In the physical world, it would be a paradox. Instead, it is resolved on the basis of the disagreement over clock synchronisation.

    This is precisely how the [actual] LP interpretation would see the issue resolved, as an issue pertaining to clock synchronisation. What then is the difference? It's that the Einsteinian interpretation adds the extra assumption pertaining to the synchony of the clocks and gives rise to the idea of real, reciprocal length contraction. Again, it just involves the same additional, untestable assumption about clock synchronisation.

    Time Dilation
    I was having trouble with this for a while, until I realised that it actually provides the justification for a preferred/privileged reference frame.

    If we think back to how Poincare derived the formula for the Lorentz contraction, he started with the absolute reference frame and then had two reference frames moving relative to that. For the sake of this discussion, lets imagine that each reference frame was moving relative to the absolute frame with the same relative velocity. Essentially, both clocks tick slowly by the same amount.

    If we imagine Alice and Bob in those frames each with their light clock. Each would see the photon in their clock travel the perpendicular distance between the mirrors. Alice would see the photon in Bob's clock travel the longer, diagonal distance. However, unbeknownst to her, the photon in her clock is also traveling the same distance. This means that the duration of her "tick-to-tock" (perpendicular distance) is the same as Bob's "tick-to-tock" diagonal distance. This would mean that she doesn't actually see Bob's clock tick slower; she would either conclude that light travels faster for Bob or that the photon in her clock is also traveling the longer distance.

    This would make it seem that the LP interpretation doesn't actually predict "time dilation" at all. Indeed, it would be an issue if such an obseration were possible. It would however, be an even bigger issue for the Einsteinian interpretation if such an observation were possible, because the paradox of reciprocal contractions would be laid bare.

    Instead, we need only think about how the Twin Paradox is resolved and the Hafele-Keating experiment is conducted. In both cases, the clocks must be reuinited in a single reference frame and the differences in elapsed times compared. This has the effect of privileging the reference frame in which the clocks are reunited. It isn't that nature privileges a reference frame, we, as experimenters must privilege a reference frame as a matter of operational necessity. Indeed, any reference frame could, in theory, be chosen as the "privileged" reference frame meaning that it isn't really all that privileged. Of course, there exists a class of reference frames which we can subject to accelearation more readily than others.

    As a further matter of operational necessity, a reference frame is privileged when it is chosen as the reference frame in which to define the units of measurement that we use in experiments. For us, that is obviously the reference frame of the Eearth - be that the atomic clocks in Colorado or Greenwich.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    I'm just reading Time, Tense, and Causation by Michael Tooley and I read something in there that might help to clarify one of the points I was making:

    Round-Trip Light Principle—where this is the principle,not that the round-trip speed of light is a constant relative to all inertial frames,but rather that the round-trip speed of light is a constant as measured within all inertial frames.

    I'm not sure if that exactly fits with what I am saying, but it sounds similar.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    The fact that no experiment can be carried out to verify the synchrony of the clocks means precisely that the simultaneity of the [clock synchronisation] events must be assumed.

    What Alice assumes (for the purposes of your thought experiment) is the postulates of relativity. Alice gives a justification for her belief in the synchronised clocks, based on relativity and proper adherence to the synchronisation procedure. The synchronised clocks are inferred, not assumed.

    This is not some small quibble about language since, in your paper, you use "assume" to mean neither Alice nor Bob can justifiably assert their clocks are synchronised. But both can justifiably assert their clocks are synchronised if relativity is assumed.
    The presence of an alternative explanation for the actual observations Alice makes, only serves to demonstrate that the contention - the clocks in her system are synchronised - is an assumption.

    There are always alternative explanations to any observation.


    I don't think we continue with the rest of the conversation until this point is resolved.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    What Alice assumes (for the purposes of your thought experiment) is the postulates of relativity. Alice gives a justification for her belief in the synchronised clocks, based on relativity and proper adherence to the synchronisation procedure. The synchronised clocks are inferred, not assumed.

    This is not some small quibble about language since, in your paper, you use "assume" to mean neither Alice nor Bob can justifiably assert their clocks are synchronised. But both can justifiably assert their clocks are synchronised if relativity is assumed.

    There are always alternative explanations to any observation.


    I don't think we continue with the rest of the conversation until this point is resolved
    I've been addressing this very issue in a similar discussion on another platform. I think it might be an intuitive response to say that Alice assumes the postulates of relativity, bcos there is an assumption that the self-consistency of relativity is being challenged. I'm inferring this from the other discussion, so apologies if it isn't the case here. It might be worth stating however, that the internal consistency isn't being challenged here, indeed the self-consistency of SR is assumed in the context of this discussion.

    So, Alice doesn't assume the postulates of SR. Alice is aware that there are different, contradictory interpretations of the evidence. She carries out the clock "synchronisation" procedure and then does a cross-comparison of the competing interpretations, to see if she can gleam any further insight by playing the different interpretations off against each other.

    Alice can see that, according to one interpretation (SR) the clocks in her frame of reference are synchronised, however, acccording to other [absolutist] interpretations (Etherless-Lorentz-Poincare/Michael Tooley/Michael Tooley sans absolute reference frame) the clocks in her frame are not synchronised. All of the interpretations are empirically equivalent.

    Given that the same evidence leads to contradictory interpretations:
    1) clocks are synced in her frame
    2) clocks are not synced in her frame

    The evidence does not distinguish between the two and so neither proposition can be inferred from the evidence. If Alice concludes that the clocks in her frame are in sync - as the first part of the conclusion of RoS does - she does so by assuming that he clocks are synced, in her frame. In doing so, the conclusion of RoS is assumed.

    Implicit assumption of simultaneity
    Given that Einstein's clock synchronisation convention establishes by deffinition that the time for the signal from emitter to clock A is equal to the time from emitter to clock B (with the reverse for the return journey), by extension the synchronisation of the clocks is estabished by definition. Said another way, the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events is implicitly assumed, by the synchronisation convention.

    It's like saying, assume that Alice is moving relative to Bob. Implicit in this, is that Bob is moving relative to Alice. Establishing one fact implicity/simultaneously establishes the other.


    Derived from the Isotropic, one-way speed of light
    If we take the contention that the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events is derived and not assumed; obviously, from the above, I disagree, but for arguments sake, we can examine that propostition:

    If we establish by definition that the time from emitter (with its own clock) to A equals the time from emitter to B (and likewise for the return jounrey) then there are 2 things that we can "derive" from that:
    1) the clock synchronisation events are simultaneous, in the given frame i.e. they co-incide
    with the reading d/2 on the clock at the emitter (mid-point)
    2) the light pulses will return to the mid-point simultaneously.

    Here, we have derived two statements about the configuration of the physical system. While the two statements have been derived from the same information, there is a key difference between them. That difference pertains to their empirical verifiability. As we know, statement #2 above can easily be tested and indeed it is. It represents a testable prediction of all of the various interpretations.

    As we both know, #1 above simply cannot be tested. While the fact that it can't be tested puts it into a different class than statement #2, this different classification doesn't explain away the fact that it represents an untestable prediction.

    It might not be such an issue if one of the most counter-intuitive conclusions, in the SR interpretation, didn't depend entirelly upon it. The fact that the conclusion, that simultaneity is relative, rests entirely on this untestable prediction makes it a bug, not a feature, of the interpretation.

    It cannot be tested, therefore it is assumed. In assuming this, so is the conclusion of RoS assumed - because without that assumption, RoS simply disappears.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Alice can see that, according to one interpretation (SR) the clocks in her frame of reference are synchronised, however, acccording to other [absolutist] interpretations (Etherless-Lorentz-Poincare/Michael Tooley/Michael Tooley sans absolute reference frame) the clocks in her frame are not synchronised. All of the interpretations are empirically equivalent.

    Implicit assumption of simultaneity
    Given that Einstein's clock synchronisation convention establishes by deffinition that the time for the signal from emitter to clock A is equal to the time from emitter to clock B (with the reverse for the return journey), by extension the synchronisation of the clocks is estabished by definition. Said another way, the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events is implicitly assumed, by the synchronisation convention.

    In this case, Alice is doing a very peculiar thing. She appears to be initially agnostic about special relativity vs other accounts, but then assumes her clocks are synchronised, assumes relativity of simultaneity, and concludes special relativity as the superior account. Few people would find her reasoning compelling.

    Special relativity, of course, wasn't established on an experiment involving moving trains. It was established on its Lakatosian success as a research program.
    As we both know, #1 above simply cannot be tested. While the fact that it can't be tested puts it into a different class than statement #2, this different classification doesn't explain away the fact that it represents an untestable prediction.

    Similarly to the above, if Alice arbitrarily adheres to the one-way speed of light postulate, this experiment will do little cement her views.

    If your claim is merely that this thought experiment, evaluated in isolation, does not constitute evidence for special relativity over other interpretations, you won't get many arguments. But your paper seems to be doing something else. It seems to be arguing that the experiment reveals some sort of deficiency in SR.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    In this case, Alice is doing a very peculiar thing. She appears to be initially agnostic about special relativity vs other accounts, but then assumes her clocks are synchronised, assumes relativity of simultaneity, and concludes special relativity as the superior account. Few people would find her reasoning compelling.
    Alice represents anyone who concludes that simultaneity is relative. They do so by assuming the conclusion.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Special relativity, of course, wasn't established on an experiment involving moving trains. It was established on its Lakatosian success as a research program.
    Its success as a Lakatosian research program appears to have inspired a number of people to develop thought experiments that allow us to examine the empirical consequences of the theory in a manner that would otherwise not be practical. As idealised representations of plausible [but not practical] real-world experiments, the thought experiments allow us to derive statements about what the theory logically necessitates. One such statement pertains to the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events in a given frame. Whether it represents the kind of "hard core" assumption that would be under consideration in a Lakatosian research program, it nonetheless represents a conclusional assumption, an assumption that forms an integral part of the conclusion of RoS.

    Morbert wrote: »
    If your claim is merely that this thought experiment, evaluated in isolation, does not constitute evidence for special relativity over other interpretations, you won't get many arguments. But your paper seems to be doing something else. It seems to be arguing that the experiment reveals some sort of deficiency in SR.
    It reveals that the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events in a given frame is derived from [but not necessarily implied by] the mathematics of the theory. This derivation is in the domain of abstract mathematics. Mathematically derived predictions require empirical verification, by way of experiment - a domain in which the rules of empiricism apply.

    Given that the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events cannot be determined by way of experiment, they cannot be empirically verfified or falsified, therefore, in terms of empiricism, they represent assumptions.

    As the conclusion of RoS includes a statement about the simutaneity of [clock synchronisation*] events which cannot be empirically tested and must therefore be assumed - empirically speaking - the conclusion of RoS is therefore an assumed conclusion i.e. it is circular reasoning.

    If this is some sort of deficiency in SR - and I argue that it most certainly is - then it is bcos circular reasoning and unfalsifiable predictions are deficiencies; particularly when it is possible to derive an interpretation which explains the body of existing empirical tests without any of the additional untestabe claims.

    *not specifically clock synchronisation events, but inclusive of them, and in such a way that we can extrapolate to all "simultaneous events", in the given frame.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    It needn't be that difficult to see. Just put yourself in Alice's shoes. You are located at the mid-point between two clocks; you have your own clock; you send out a light pulse from the mid-point to each clock. Can you be sure that the light pulses reached each clock simultaneously? Can you be sure that as your clock read the time d/c, the light pulses were making physical contact with the other two clocks?

    You know that you can't be sure. You know that you cannot verify this empirically. You know, therefore, if you make any statement whatsoever, to the effect that the clocks are synced - in a frame dependent manner or otherwise - you are making an assumption.

    Simply by virtue of the fact that you haven't observed it.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Alice represents anyone who concludes that simultaneity is relative. They do so by assuming the conclusion.

    I don't know what you mean by this.

    Presumably, either Alice is agnostic about special relativity and adopts seemingly arbitrary assumptions about auxiliary hypotheses re/ clock synchronisation to arrive at it as the correct theory.

    Or Alice, being well versed in physics as a discipline, accepts the postulates of special relativity with a high degree of confidence and interprets the theory in a sound and consistent manner.
    Its success as a Lakatosian research program appears to have inspired a number of people to develop thought experiments that allow us to examine the empirical consequences of the theory in a manner that would otherwise not be practical. As idealised representations of plausible [but not practical] real-world experiments, the thought experiments allow us to derive statements about what the theory logically necessitates. One such statement pertains to the simultaneity of clock synchronisation events in a given frame. Whether it represents the kind of "hard core" assumption that would be under consideration in a Lakatosian research program, it nonetheless represents a conclusional assumption, an assumption that forms an integral part of the conclusion of RoS.

    I don't know what you mean by "conclusional assumption". It is an uncontroversial inference from the postulates of relativity, as is relativity of simultaneity.
    Mathematically derived predictions require empirical verification, by way of experiment - a domain in which the rules of empiricism apply.

    Why? Lots of theories make all sorts of predictions about observations we cannot make.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    I don't know what you mean by this.

    Presumably, either Alice is agnostic about special relativity and adopts seemingly arbitrary assumptions about auxiliary hypotheses re/ clock synchronisation to arrive at it as the correct theory.

    Or Alice, being well versed in physics as a discipline, accepts the postulates of special relativity with a high degree of confidence and interprets the theory in a sound and consistent manner.
    Or Alice, being well versed in physics as a discipline recognises that there are contradictory theories/interpretations.

    She does the sync procedure and the light signals return simultaneously. She looks at the two interpretations and thinks:
    "My clocks might be synced, or equally, they might not be. The evidence is inconclusive. I cannot be sure that they are synced. If I conclude that they are synced, without having observed it, then that is a conclusion which I am assuming to be true - precisely bcos I haven't obseerved it, I haven't verified it empirically"


    Morbert wrote: »
    I don't know what you mean by "conclusional assumption". It is an uncontroversial inference from the postulates of relativity, as is relativity of simultaneity.
    However, it is a controversial (and unjustified) inference from the available empirical evidence.

    Conclusional assumption as opposed to foundational assumption.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Why? Lots of theories make all sorts of predictions about observations we cannot make.
    If the assumptions of those theories form a critical part of their conclusions then they too assume their conclusions.

    It is possible to interpret relativity in such a way as not to assume conclusions.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Or Alice, being well versed in physics as a discipline recognises that there are contradictory theories/interpretations.

    She does the sync procedure and the light signals return simultaneously. She looks at the two interpretations and thinks:
    "My clocks might be synced, or equally, they might not be. The evidence is inconclusive. I cannot be sure that they are synced. If I conclude that they are synced, without having observed it, then that is a conclusion which I am assuming to be true - precisely bcos I haven't obseerved it, I haven't verified it empirically"

    We are beginning to go in circles.

    If Alice accepts special relativity, she does not say "my clocks might be synced, or equally, they might not be". She instead infers clock synchronisation as a frame-dependent description. She infers it with good reason (the unparalleled success of relativity as a scientific theory). Describing it as an assumptions implies she cannot justifiably assert it. But she can justifiably assert it, based on the remarkable success of special relativity.
    However, it is a controversial (and unjustified) inference from the available empirical evidence.

    If by "all available evidence" you mean the observations made during this experiment and this experiment alone, sure. But nobody would claim that special relativity, clock synchronisation, or relativity of simultaneity is established by this experiment and this experiment alone.

    If, instead, special relativity is a well-established theory, then the inference is uncontroversial and justified.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    We are beginning to go in circles.

    If Alice accepts special relativity, she does not say "my clocks might be synced, or equally, they might not be". She instead infers clock synchronisation as a frame-dependent description. She infers it with good reason (the unparalleled success of relativity as a scientific theory). Describing it as an assumptions implies she cannot justifiably assert it. But she can justifiably assert it, based on the remarkable success of special relativity.
    Except that the remarkable success of Special Relativity is equally the remarkable success of those mathematically and empirically equivalent theories. Check out a paper titled:
    On the Empirical Equivalence between Special Relativity and Lorentz’s Ether Theory by Pablo Acuna. I have attached a copy here. Acuna argues in favor of SR saying the two can be distinguished on the basis of empirical evidence, but he outlines how the two theories are equally "remarkably successful".

    Given this empirical equivalence, Alice doesn't simply accept Special Relativity, she is skeptical of it. She sees two empirically equivalent interpretations, one which says that the clock syncing events were simultaneous in her frame, the other which says they weren't. Therefore, she concludes, "my clocks might be synced, or equally, they might not be, I simply cannot make that determination on the basis of the empirical evidence".

    Given that a critical part of the conclusion of RoS includes a statement about the simultaneity of [clock syncing] events, in her frame, coupled with the fact that she cannot determine the truth of that statement empirically, she therefore, can only assume the truth of it. Assuming the truth of that statement assumes a critical part of the conclusion of RoS.

    The finite speed of light is sufficient to demonstrate that she cannot make an empirical observation of the clock syncing events, and so, can only assume its validity.

    Morbert wrote: »
    If by "all available evidence" you mean the observations made during this experiment and this experiment alone, sure. But nobody would claim that special relativity, clock synchronisation, or relativity of simultaneity is established by this experiment and this experiment alone.

    If, instead, special relativity is a well-established theory, then the inference is uncontroversial and justified.
    Except for the fact that the mathematically and empirically equialent competing theories, which make the opposite claim, are equally well-established (by the empirical evidence).

    This thought experiment allows us to make further deductions about the different interpretations.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    To me this discussion has become pointless and will only form an empirical test of Morbert's patience.

    The isotropic constancy of the speed of light is the assumption Einstein makes, he does not assume synchonisation. This has been explained to you multiple times and is blatantly obvious if one knows the theory mathematically. There is no point continuously asserting that they are assuming synchronisation.

    Here we have two options. That the world is described by Minkowski spacetime because that is the actual structure of the world (Einstein's view ultimately) or that the Minkowski structure is an illusion of the underlying dynamics. There's no real reason to go with the latter. One can make the same statement about any physical theory, is there really an electric field or is it just an illusion due to how some objects move for other reasons.

    Add to that that if the world wasn't really Minkowskian particles would operate differently. The "illusion" argument only works with Special Relativity in isolation. If the world isn't really Minkowskian it is very difficult to explain why particles work as they do.
    I have an of what it is, I'm wondering how this description is determined/derived. What is it that gives us the information about the true space/spacetime in the model.
    It's the actual mathematical geometric structure of the true space/spacetime. How particles behave is then a result of the symmetry group of the true space/spacetime. They won't operate based on an illusory one, only the geometry of the true one. This is why I find this "illusion of the dynamics" argument hard to believe.

    I've looked over your posts and I see you have been arguing about Relativity for ten years without ever reading a textbook on Relativity. Instead reading multiple discursive monographs with little mathematics by people with alternate views. Wouldn't it be better to just read a standard college textbook on the subject so that you actually understand the mathematics of what you are arguing against.

    Arguing against a theory that you have to be half-educated in as you debate it is pointless.

    This is my final post on the topic.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Except that the remarkable success of Special Relativity is equally the remarkable success of those mathematically and empirically equivalent theories.

    Except for the fact that the mathematically and empirically equialent competing theories, which make the opposite claim, are equally well-established (by the empirical evidence)

    From the paper you included

    "Lorentz‘s theory—in spite of its predictive equivalence with respect to special relativity—does not fit within general relativity. As mentioned above, it claims that the physical world, in its spatiotemporal features, has the structure of Newtonian space-time. Therefore, even if we take Lorentz‘s theory as holding for a local region of a global space-time, it is in conflict with the meaning of general relativity. Einstein‘s gravitational theory states that the geometry of an infinitesimal region of a global space-time does not approximate to the geometry of a Newtonian space-time, but to the geometry of a Minkowski space-time. Despite the mathematical and empirical equivalence between Lorentz ̳s theory and special relativity, the former cannot be understood as a special case of general relativity; the theories are incompatible."

    Special relativity's fundamentally geometric account of the laws of physics and spacetime lets us relax assumptions about the global structure of events via the principle of equivalence. The laws of physics become the same (on a fundamental level) in curved as well as flat spacetimes. Geometries as prior inputs to a theory can be eschewed in favour of geometries that emerge as solutions to equations involving matter and energy. These geometries also naturally account for gravity, thereby coupling matter and energy to gravity, giving us a powerful theory of gravity.

    Even in the frontiers of physics, where a quantum theory of gravity is not complete, the flexibility of fundamentally geometric accounts lets us apply the equivalence principle and study quantum mechanics on curved spacetimes and all its concomitant implications.

    These are impressive notches, clearly evidencing special relativity's success over competing projects.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    I too think I'll bow out of the conversation at this point. I don't think furthering it will be particularly fruitful.

    Roosh, you (presumably) have the last word. Now is your chance to link me to some Lorentz-Poincare-Bohm theory of everything that blows current projects out of the water and condemns relativity of simultaneity to the grave.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    The isotropic constancy of the speed of light is the assumption Einstein makes, he does not assume synchonisation. This has been explained to you multiple times and is blatantly obvious if one knows the theory mathematically. There is no point continuously asserting that they are assuming synchronisation.
    The mathematics of the theory is not being questioned. Indeed, the underlying mathematics is the same for the Etherless Lorentz-Poincare interpretation as well as the Michael Tooley interpretation. So, the issue clearly cannot lie in the mathematics.

    Neither of the two aforementioned interpretations incorporate RoS, so, given that they both employ the same mathematics, RoS cannot be a consequence of the mathematics.

    You only need to put yourself in Alice's shoes and imagine you are carrying out the syncing experiment. You have your clock, you send the light signals to the two spatially separated clocks. As your the time ticks away on your clock and the reading d/c appears, ask yourself, where are the two light signals?

    Are they making physical contact with the spatially separated, physical clocks onboard your spaceship? How can you verify this? The fact that the speed of light is finite means that you cannot verify it.

    If you choose to assume that the time (as measured by the clock in your hand) from you to the clock at A is equals the time (as measured by the clock in your hand) from you to the clock at B, then yes, you will conclude that the clock syncing events are simultaneous.

    If you choose to assume that the reading [d/c] on the clock in your hand coincides with the clock syncing events (where the physical light signals make physical contact with the physical clocks) then yes, you will conclude that the clocks are synced, in your frame.

    Note the assumptions upon which the conclusion rests.

    The issue is that you and Morbert are taking Einstein's sync convention as given and then working to show the internal consistency of SR. The problem is that the consistency of SR is not the point being contested and the validity of the sync convention is not a given.
    Fourier wrote: »
    Here we have two options. That the world is described by Minkowski spacetime because that is the actual structure of the world (Einstein's view ultimately) or that the Minkowski structure is an illusion of the underlying dynamics. There's no real reason to go with the latter. One can make the same statement about any physical theory, is there really an electric field or is it just an illusion due to how some objects move for other reasons.
    Poincaré showed that Lorentz‘s theory can be formulated in the four-dimensional geometric language that Minkoswki developed in 1908.
    From the paper I posted to Morbert

    From Wolfgang Rindler's Relativity: Special, General, Cosmological
    This length contraction is no illusion, no mere accident of measurement or convention. It is real in every sense. A moving rod is really short! It could really be pushed into a hole at rest in the lab into which it would not fit if it were not moving and shrunk....We cannot and need not know the details of all this, but we know a priori that there must be a detailed mechanical explanation of the shortening.
    ...
    Add to that that if the world wasn't really Minkowskian particles would operate differently. The "illusion" argument only works with Special Relativity in isolation. If the world isn't really Minkowskian it is very difficult to explain why particles work as they do.

    If one takes the position that Minkowski spacetime is the actual structure of the world then one must give up the notion of relative motion, bcos reelative motion cannot happen in the frozen structure of Minkowski spacetime.


    Fourier wrote: »
    It's the actual mathematical geometric structure of the true space/spacetime. How particles behave is then a result of the symmetry group of the true space/spacetime. They won't operate based on an illusory one, only the geometry of the true one. This is why I find this "illusion of the dynamics" argument hard to believe.
    Another contribution that Poincare made to Lorentz‘s theory was a mathematical result: he showed that the Lorentz transformations form a group. A collection of transformations constitute a group if they are associative, if there exists an identity transformation, if the transformation obtained through two successive applications of a transformation in the collection is also a transformation in the collection, and if there exists an inverse transformation. By demonstrating the last property Poincaré showed that the Lorentz transformations are symmetrical.
    Is that the symmetry group you are referring to,or is it a different one?

    If so, bare in mind that I am advocating the removal of the absolute reference frame. Go down the SR route and employ a two-way light principle as opposed to one-way. No absolute structure reqired, same mathematics.
    Fourier wrote: »
    I've looked over your posts and I see you have been arguing about Relativity for ten years without ever reading a textbook on Relativity. Instead reading multiple discursive monographs with little mathematics by people with alternate views. Wouldn't it be better to just read a standard college textbook on the subject so that you actually understand the mathematics of what you are arguing against.
    The mathematics isn't the question. Given the same mathematics is employed by the different interpretations.
    Fourier wrote: »
    This is my final post on the topic.
    Thanks for taking the time to discuss it this far.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    From the paper you included

    "Lorentz‘s theory—in spite of its predictive equivalence with respect to special relativity—does not fit within general relativity. As mentioned above, it claims that the physical world, in its spatiotemporal features, has the structure of Newtonian space-time. Therefore, even if we take Lorentz‘s theory as holding for a local region of a global space-time, it is in conflict with the meaning of general relativity. Einstein‘s gravitational theory states that the geometry of an infinitesimal region of a global space-time does not approximate to the geometry of a Newtonian space-time, but to the geometry of a Minkowski space-time. Despite the mathematical and empirical equivalence between Lorentz ̳s theory and special relativity, the former cannot be understood as a special case of general relativity; the theories are incompatible."

    Special relativity's fundamentally geometric account of the laws of physics and spacetime lets us relax assumptions about the global structure of events via the principle of equivalence. The laws of physics become the same (on a fundamental level) in curved as well as flat spacetimes. Geometries as prior inputs to a theory can be eschewed in favour of geometries that emerge as solutions to equations involving matter and energy. These geometries also naturally account for gravity, thereby coupling matter and energy to gravity, giving us a powerful theory of gravity.
    Bare in mind that I am not advocating for an interpretation that has the spatiotemporal features and structure of Newtonian space-time. The L-P route to understanding the theory is just a means of demonstrating how the idea that clocks are in sync, in a given frame, is not something that is derived from observation, but rather is assumed*.

    We can go the SR route instead. Instead of an isotropic one-way light speed principle, we adopt the Round-Trip Light Principle I referenced earlier. We end up with the same conclusions but haven't employed any "absolute scaffolding" in the process. We also don't make an assumption about the synchrony of clocks in a given frame.


    *Again, to clarify the difference. In the abstract domain of mahtematics (coupled with foundational assumptions) it is a derived statement. It is however, a statement about the pysical world derived from mathematics. As such a statement about the physical world, it requires empirical testing in the physical [not abstract] world. In the real-world, the rules of empiricism apply. Mathematically derived statements are therefore subjected to the rules of empiricism to see if they are falsified.

    In the case of the clock syncing events, this cannot be determined empirically which makes it an mathematically derived, untestable prediction. In the domain of empiricism it therefore constitutes an assumption.

    If someone wishes to conclude that RoS is an accurate model of the physical world, and therefore conforms to the rules of empiricism, then they must do so by assuming that the conclusion is valid - bcos they cannnot test it empirically.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Even in the frontiers of physics, where a quantum theory of gravity is not complete, the flexibility of fundamentally geometric accounts lets us apply the equivalence principle and study quantum mechanics on curved spacetimes and all its concomitant implications.

    These are impressive notches, clearly evidencing special relativity's success over competing projects.
    And some less impressive notches:
    To describe how the correlations are established, a hidden variables theory must embrace one observer’s definition of simultaneity
    Lee Smolin - Time Reborn
    So the thrust of the Einstein–Podolsky–Rosen thought experiment is no longer merely that either the Special Theory of Relativity,or else quantum mechanics,is incomplete. It is rather that either the Special Theory of Relativity is incomplete,or quantum mechanics is false.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    And some less impressive notches:
    Since this is unrelated to the main topic I will briefly discuss it.

    The quote from Lee Smolin doesn't contradict anything Morbert is saying or in fact count as something "less impressive" for Special Relativity. It's saying that a hidden variable account of QM would require one particular notion of simultaneity to be correct, i.e. a hidden variable account of QM would require special relativity to be wrong. However since hidden variable accounts don't seem to be able to match experimental tests currently, this doesn't matter.

    In other words the fact that a theory that isn't empirically validated would require Special Relativity to be incorrect isn't a notch against Relativity.

    Tooley's quote is completely nonsensical showing he doesn't understand EPR or how Bell's theorem has cast it in a different light. EPR showed that under certain assumptions QM is incomplete. Bell's theorem then showed that those assumptions are false, invalidating the EPR argument, hence QM is complete as a physical theory.

    This is the problem. Since you don't read actual textbooks you don't really understand what standard theories are saying and just randomly quote things without fully understanding them. As I said above there's no point in reading people like Tooley who don't seem to understand physics either. It'd be like trying to learn programming from somebody who thinks compilers can't exist. Just read a textbook.

    In one last desperate attempt:
    The issue is that you and Morbert are taking Einstein's sync convention as given and then working to show the internal consistency of SR. The problem is that the consistency of SR is not the point being contested and the validity of the sync convention is not a given
    No. You have said a few times that "the maths is the same" or "the maths is not in question". The point is how Einstein derives the mathematics of Special Relativity. He does so from a few axioms. The isotropic constancy of the speed of light is one of these axioms. The relativity of simulatenity is not. That is a mathematical fact of his derivation. It's not something "philosophical" external to his derivation.

    This is another problem with your proposal. Einstein's postulates allow you to derive all of the structure of Special Relativity. You aren't able to do that. You are taking the structure already completed and viewing it differently. How exactly do your dynamics work that they replicate all of Special Relativity?

    Einstein is taking a few simple postulates (The relativity of simulatenity is ---->not<---- one of them) and deriving all of SR as a consequence. You are assuming the presence of all of SR already.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    Bell's theorem then showed that those assumptions are false, invalidating the EPR argument, hence QM is complete as a physical theory.
    And what kind of simultaneity does QM entail? Does it say anything about FTL communication?
    Fourier wrote: »
    No. You have said a few times that "the maths is the same" or "the maths is not in question". The point is how Einstein derives the mathematics of Special Relativity. He does so from a few axioms. The isotropic constancy of the speed of light is one of these axioms. The relativity of simulatenity is not. That is a mathematical fact of his derivation. It's not something "philosophical" external to his derivation.

    This is another problem with your proposal. Einstein's postulates allow you to derive all of the structure of Special Relativity. You aren't able to do that. You are taking the structure already completed and viewing it differently. How exactly do your dynamics work that they replicate all of Special Relativity?

    Einstein is taking a few simple postulates (The relativity of simulatenity is ---->not<---- one of them) and deriving all of SR as a consequence. You are assuming the presence of all of SR already.
    Yes, he derives the mathematics from a few axioms, those are mathematical rules, which govern mathematics. The concept of RoS is not derived from the mathematics, bcos the mathematics are employed by differing interpretations, one of which has RoS the others which do not. Therefore, we can conclude that RoS is not a consequence of the mathematics. If it were, then RoS would be common to all intepretations that use the mathematics - it isn't though!

    Still, we can use the term "derive" to describe Einstein's interpretation. Indeed, we can derive the thought experiment from Einstein's assumptions. We can see the statements and predictions that are derived. All of this is derived, derived, derived, but it is only abstract. The rules of mathematics apply here and statements are derived.

    They are however, statements about the physical world. They are statements about the physical configuration of Alice's system. All derived statements. And, if they stay in the abstract world mathematics, the rules of mathematics apply.

    But, if they want to step foot into the physical world and see just how well those derived statements and predictions hold up, they have to play by different rules. Those are the rules of empiricism. Under the rules of empiricism, abstract statements derived from mathematics are impotent until they are supported by empirical evidence.

    So, while we have derived the statement, that the clock syncing events are simultaneous, that they coincide with the reading [d/c] on a clock located mid-way between the two, we want to see if we can verify it empirically.

    The simple matter of fact is, it cannot be verified empirically due to the finite speed of light. So again, yes, we have derived a mathematical statement about the clock syncing events, which is valid in the domain of mathematics, in the domain of empiricism (the physical world) however, it cannot be verified.

    Therefore, to arrive at the conclusion that the statement, derived from the mathematics, accurately corresponds to the physical world - where the rules of empiricism apply - we do so only by assuming its accuracy. This is bcos we cannot derive its accuracy from observational evidence.

    Therefore, if we conclude that the conclusion of RoS - which has been derived mathematically from a set of axioms - is an accurate representation of the physical world, we do so by way of assumption, not observation. Therefore, it is an assumed conclusion.


    Essentially, the derived statements are mathematical statements which represent predictions about the physical world. Conclusions are what we draw on the basis of empirical evidence.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    And what kind of simultaneity does QM entail? Does it say anything about FTL communication?
    No QM has no FTL communication, it also has relativity of simultaneity like Special Relativity since quantum theory takes place in a Minkowski background in modern particle physics.
    Yes, he derives the mathematics from a few axioms, those are mathematical rules, which govern mathematics. The concept of RoS is not derived from the mathematics, bcos the mathematics are employed by differing interpretations, one of which has RoS the others which do not
    The consequence of RoS is derived from the mathematics, since it is not an axiom. See any textbook on Special Relativity. It can be derived as a consequence of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    No QM has no FTL communication, it also has relativity of simultaneity like Special Relativity since quantum theory takes place in a Minkowski background in modern particle physics.
    So, there is nothing there about entangled particles forming the basis of the EPR paper which attempted to show that QM is incomplete as it implies information being transmitted faster than light as forbidden by the theory of relativity ("spooky action at a distance"). There's nothing in there about Bell's theoorem demonstrating that QM is complete (as you said) and therefore implies instantaneous communication between entangled particles which implies, or can be used to define, absolute simultaneity?

    With regard to RoS in QM. Are you stating that QM - with its Newtonian [absoute] conceptualisation of time and therefore absolute simutlaneity - also incorporates relativity of simultanneity - something which is in direct contradiction of absolute simultaneity. Is this some kind off Schroedingers Cat type simuulltaneity?

    As for QM taking place in a Minkowski background, are you sure that it doesn't take place in the mathematically identical background as derived by Poincare? If it takes place in absolutely moving reference frames there would be no way to distinguish it from such a Minkowski background - given the mathematical equivalence (the symmetry would appear to be the same and there would be no way to distinguish).

    Would it not be more reasonable that such is the case given that Poincare's interpretation employs the same Newtownian conceptualisation of time?

    EDIT: Or, if the absolute reference frame is removed from the L-P interpretation (equivalent to using a round-trip light principle in SR) you are left with only the mathematics of Minkowski (as derived by Poincare) absent RoS i.e. with absolute simultaneity.

    Fourier wrote: »
    The consequence of RoS is derived from the mathematics, since it is not an axiom. See any textbook on Special Relativity. It can be derived as a consequence of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light.
    It's not derived from the shared mathematics. If it were, it would be common to all interpretations.

    The isotropic constancy of the speed of light relative to all reference frames is a metaphysical assumption. It is from this assumption that Einstein's conceptualisation of RoS is derived. Lorentz-Poincare don't assume the SoL relative to all inertial reference frame and so RoS isn't derived in that interpretation. Both interpretations employ the Lorentz transformations, so RoS isn't a consequence of the LT.


    That is besides the point, however. You're talking about the mathematical model which is fully derived from axioms. It is governed by the rules of mathematics. Technically speaking, the conclusions derived in the mathematical domain represent predictions in the world of empiricism. That is why statements about the physical worldd, derived from mathematics, aren't simply accepted on the basis that they are derived.

    Instead, such derived statements/predictions are subjected to empirical tests to determine their correspondence to the physical world - the domain of empiricism - with a different set of rules. If the mathematically derived statement is found to be in accord with empirical observation, then it forms a conclusion. There is a hint in the word "conclude", it means to bring to an end. That is, empirical observations bring to an end the inquiry as to the validity of the mathematically derived statement about the configuration of the physical world.


    In the world of empiricism, we don't derive things mathematically, we observe/test things emprically. If you include something in your conclusion which you haven't (or can't) observe, then you are assuming that part of your conclusion.

    If we are standing in the same room and I tell you that there is a clock in the next room that, at this very moment, reads d/c. If you conclude that I am correct, without observing the reading on that clock, then you are simply assuming that I am correct.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Maybe this will help to clarify the issue.

    Alice and Bob are both in the one spaceship, with the 3 clock set-up (they are located with the middle clock).

    Bob proposes a wager, he bets that the light signals will take the same amount of time to travel to each clock and that the light signals arrive at the spatially separated clocks at the exact moment their shared clock reads d/c.

    Alice agrees, proposing a counter bet, she bets that the light signal will take a longer time to travel to the clock on the left than on the right, but that on the return leg, the opposite will be true.

    Both bet that the light signal will return simultaneously to them.


    How do Alice and Bob determine who wins the bet? Bare in mind Alice is unlikely to simply grant Bob his premises and vice versa.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,558 ✭✭✭✭Fourier


    roosh wrote: »
    So, there is nothing there about entangled particles forming the basis of the EPR paper which attempted to show that QM is incomplete as it implies information being transmitted faster than light as forbidden by the theory of relativity ("spooky action at a distance"). There's nothing in there about Bell's theoorem demonstrating that QM is complete (as you said) and therefore implies instantaneous communication between entangled particles which implies, or can be used to define, absolute simultaneity?
    No, there is nothing in entanglement that has information being transmitted faster than light. This is simple enough to prove if one knows QM. You can show the marginal probabilities for both particles are unaffected.
    With regard to RoS in QM. Are you stating that QM - with its Newtonian [absoute] conceptualisation of time and therefore absolute simutlaneity
    QM doesn't have these things. QM's conceptualisation of time is not like Newton's.
    As for QM taking place in a Minkowski background, are you sure that it doesn't take place in the mathematically identical background as derived by Poincare?
    The background of QM in modern particle theory is explicitly Minkowski spacetime. See the first of Weinberg's three volumes on the Quantum Theory of Fields.
    It's not derived from the shared mathematics. If it were, it would be common to all interpretations.

    The isotropic constancy of the speed of light relative to all reference frames is a metaphysical assumption
    I think it's almost impossible for you to make progress on this because you just don't understand this basic point. You're also introducing a sharp distinction between "empirical deductions" and mathematical ones, where as physics is about making empirical conclusions via mathematical deduction by encoding empirical statements as mathematical facts, i.e. your division indicates you don't really understand how physics works. Mathematics is used as a way of reasoning about physical facts, one more succinct and accurate than using long word arguments.

    Einstein makes the physical/ontological assumption of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light. This is easy enough to encode mathematically. Using mathematics one can then derive RoS. Continuing on one can derive the rest of the mathematical structure of Relativity. Basically his stages are:

    (1) Ontological presumptions encoded in Mathematics (e.g. Isotropic constancy of speed of light)
    (2) Basic ontological consequences derived mathematically (Ros)
    (3) Empirically accessible facts derived mathematically from (2).

    Other interpretations only share the mathematics of (3), but there are other mathematical statements found in (2) that they don't agree on. Thus we can have derived mathematical facts that aren't common between interpretations, i.e. those in stage (2). Einstein does not however assume RoS as it is in (2) and not in (1).

    What makes your proposal hard to accept is that it just takes (3) as given and views it in another way. You don't actually demonstrate your dynamics from which the Minkowski structure emerges as an illusion.
    Maybe this will help to clarify the issue.
    We both get what you are talking about and have from the start. Different interpretations of the mathematics of a theory are well known from QM. It's simple enough to understand. The problem is you don't understand how interpretations are structured.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,553 ✭✭✭roosh


    Fourier wrote: »
    No, there is nothing in entanglement that has information being transmitted faster than light. This is simple enough to prove if one knows QM. You can show the marginal probabilities for both particles are unaffected.


    QM doesn't have these things. QM's conceptualisation of time is not like Newton's.

    The background of QM in modern particle theory is explicitly Minkowski spacetime. See the first of Weinberg's three volumes on the Quantum Theory of Fields.
    To address the QFT shaped feather in the cap of relativity.
    Problem of localization in a quantum field theory. Schroedinger’s equation evolves wave- functions in a non-local way, so there seems to be a problem with superluminal propagation.

    ...

    Quantum mechanics has one thing, time, which is absolute. But [special and] general relativity tells us that space and time are both dynamical so there is a big contradiction there.
    Perimeter Institute Roundtable Discussions
    square brackets are my own addition.
    Current versions of quantum field theory do a fine job explaining how individual particles or small systems of particles behave, but they fail to take into account what is needed to have a sensible theory of the cosmos as a whole.
    Lee Smolin Time Reborn p.142
    Relativity gives nonsensical answers when you try to scale it down to quantum size, eventually descending to infinite values in its description of gravity. Likewise, quantum mechanics runs into serious trouble when you blow it up to cosmic dimensions. Quantum fields carry a certain amount of energy, even in seemingly empty space, and the amount of energy gets bigger as the fields get bigger. According to Einstein, energy and mass are equivalent (that’s the message of E=mc2), so piling up energy is exactly like piling up mass. Go big enough, and the amount of energy in the quantum fields becomes so great that it creates a black hole that causes the universe to fold in on itself. Oops.
    Guardian article
    The root of all the evil was clearly special relativity. All these paradoxes resulted from well-known effects such as length contraction, time dilation, or E=mc2, all basic predictions of special relativity. And all denied the possibility of establishing a well-defined border, common to all observers, capable of containing new quantum gravitational effects. Quantum gravity seemed to lack a dam—its effects wanted to spill out all over the place; and the underlying reason was none other than special relativity.
    João Magueijo Faster than the Speed of Light p.250

    despite the successes of quantum field theory, many physicists, beginning with Einstein, have wanted to go beyond it to a deeper theory that gives a complete description of each individual experiment--which, as we have seen, no quantum theory does. Their searches have consistently found an irreconcilable conflict between quantum physics and special relativity.

    As long as we’re just checking the predictions of quantum mechanics at the level of statistics, we don’t have to ask how the correlations were actually established. It is only when we seek to describe how information is transmitted within each entangled pair that we need a notion of instantaneous communication. It’s only when we seek to go beyond the statistical predictions of quantum theory to a hidden-variables theory that we come into conflict with the relativity of simultaneity.

    To describe how the correlations are established, a hidden-variables theory must embrace one observer’s definition of simultaneity. This means, in turn, that there is a preferred notion of rest.  And that, in turn, implies that motion is absolute. Motion is absolutely meaningful, because you can talk absolutely about who is moving with respect to that one observer--call him Aristotle. Aristotle is at rest. Anything he sees as moving is really moving.
    End of story.

    In other words, Einstein was wrong. Newton was wrong. Galileo was wrong. There is no relativity of motion.

    This is our choice. Either quantum mechanics is the final theory and there is no penetrating its statistical veil to reach a deeper level of description, or Aristotle was right and there is a preferred version of motion and rest.

    This means giving up the relativity of simultaneity and embracing its opposite: that there is a preferred global notion of time. Remarkably, this does not require overthrowing relativity theory; it turns out that a reformulation of it is enough. The heart of the resolution is a new and deeper way of understanding general relativity theory which reveals a new conception of real time.
    Lee Smolin Time Reborn p.142
    Italics are mine.
    “If anything, people underappreciate the extent to which quantum mechanics just completely throws away our notions of space and locality [the notion that a physical event can affect only its immediate surroundings]. Those things simply are not there in quantum mechanics,” Carroll says.
    ...
    We don’t even know what time is.”
    Sean Carroll

    With regard to Tooley's statement about the completeness of Relativity:
    And relativity, can it be considered complete? Well, if nonlocality is really real, as widely supported by the accounts summaries in this article, then all complete theories should have a place for it. Hence, the question is: ”Does relativity hold a place for non-signaling nonlocal
    correlations?”.
    Nicolas Gisin (2018) Can relativity be considered complete? From Newtonian nonlocality to quantum nonlocality and beyond

    We can reason further. If QFT does indeed incorporate RoS, then it too must assume the conclusion, because the simultaneity of events cannot be determined in the "stationary system".
    Fourier wrote: »
    We both get what you are talking about and have from the start. Different interpretations of the mathematics of a theory are well known from QM. It's simple enough to understand. The problem is you don't understand how interpretations are structured.
    I'm not convinced that ye do know what I'm talking about bcos [as we can further see below] ye both retort with arguments demonstrating the self-consistency of Einsteinian relativity, when the self-consistency isn't in question.
    Fourier wrote: »
    I think it's almost impossible for you to make progress on this because you just don't understand this basic point. You're also introducing a sharp distinction between "empirical deductions" and mathematical ones, where as physics is about making empirical conclusions via mathematical deduction by encoding empirical statements as mathematical facts, i.e. your division indicates you don't really understand how physics works. Mathematics is used as a way of reasoning about physical facts, one more succinct and accurate than using long word arguments.
    Empirical statements are encoded mathematically and conclusions are derived via mathematical deduction.......and then those conclusions are subjected to empirical testing to see if they correspond to the physical world.

    RoS isn't an empirical statement bcos it cannot be tested empirically. The one-way SoL isn't an empirical statement bcos it cannot be tested empirically [yet or possibly ever]. RoS is a consequence of the one-way SoL, so the chain of events you outline above is completely disregarded in Einsteinian relativity.

    You may perhaps be familiar with the Conventionality Thesis which essentially states that simultaneity of events in a single inertial frame is assumed.


    Fourier wrote: »
    Einstein makes the physical/ontological assumption of the isotropic constancy of the speed of light. This is easy enough to encode mathematically. Using mathematics one can then derive RoS. Continuing on one can derive the rest of the mathematical structure of Relativity.
    What happened to "encoding empirical statements as mathematical facts", here we have an ontological assumption being encoded as a mathematical fact..

    Essentially you are saying, RoS is a part of Einstein's relativity and Einstein's relativity is self-consistent.

    That is not the contention. The contention is that the conclsuion that a model of the physical world which incorporates RoS requires us to assume the conclusion that RoS represents an accuarate model of the physical world.

    It's the Loch Ness Monster/Flying Spaghetti Monster issue. Both interpretations might be internally consistent, but concluding that they are accurate models of the physical world requires that conclusion to be assumed.
    Fourier wrote: »
    Basically his stages are:
    (1) Ontological presumptions encoded in Mathematics (e.g. Isotropic constancy of speed of light)
    (2) Basic ontological consequences derived mathematically (Ros)
    (3) Empirically accessible facts derived mathematically from (2).

    Other interpretations only share the mathematics of (3), but there are other mathematical statements found in (2) that they don't agree on. Thus we can have derived mathematical facts that aren't common between interpretations, i.e. those in stage (2). Einstein does not however assume RoS as it is in (2) and not in (1).
    Again, where are the empirical statements that are encoded as mathematical facts?

    Those ontological consequences derived mathematiclly in (2) represent predictions about the physical world i.e. they are statements about the nature of the physical world. The fact that RoS is not included in (3) means that it isn't "empirically accessible" i.e. it is untestable.

    An untestable conclusion which follows from an untestable assumption does not acquire ontological status just bcos it is "derived" from an assumption. It simply makes it unfalsifiable.

    The empirical success of Einstein's theory would offer it major support if it weren't for the fact that the empirical verification applies equally to other interpretations that completely contradict RoS - meaning that there is no empirical support for RoS. As you highlght, it is not "empirically accessible". This means that, if a model that includes RoS is to be accepted then that conclusion must be assumed to be true.

    Fourier wrote: »
    What makes your proposal hard to accept is that it just takes (3) as given and views it in another way. You don't actually demonstrate your dynamics from which the Minkowski structure emerges as an illusion.
    I'm advocating for a different interpretation which would retain the Minkowski structure but jettison the assumed conclusion of RoS.

    I think part of the problem might lie in the assumption that Minkowski Spacetime necessitates RoS, when that doesn't appear to be the case. Poincaré's derivation of the mathematics demonstrates this and we can reason this from the employment of an emprical statement which should be easily encoded as a mathematical fact i.e. a roundtrip SoL principle.


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