Advertisement
If you have a new account but are having problems posting or verifying your account, please email us on hello@boards.ie for help. Thanks :)
Hello all! Please ensure that you are posting a new thread or question in the appropriate forum. The Feedback forum is overwhelmed with questions that are having to be moved elsewhere. If you need help to verify your account contact hello@boards.ie

Mark 15:34

Options
2»

Comments

  • Options
    #32
    Leroy42
    Registered Users Posts: 15,495 ✭✭✭✭Leroy42


    santana75 wrote: »
    This used to disturb me also but then one day I was reading Psalms and I came across this:

    "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me? Why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?"
    Psalm 22

    Seeing this for me made everything clear. Jesus was quoting King David in that moment. If you study the Gospels you'll see that Jesus quoted the old testament a lot. When he was being tempted in the wilderness he never engaged with Satan in any kind of conventional dialogue, he just threw scripture at him. I think David was talking about Jesus when he wrote those words and Jesus, hanging on the cross, was fulfilling the prophecy. If you read the old testament again but this time watch out for mentions of Jesus, you'll see clearly that he is everywhere in that book. Its quite amazing to see this.

    I fully accept that he might have been quoting Psalm 22. But therein lies another problem. Was he simply quoting it to fulfil the prophecy or did he actually mean it?

    I have heard both arguments on this thread, which seems strange since I would assume that the bible makes it pretty clear since I am repeatedly told to reread it (or read it as that implies that I haven't!)

    So which is it? If quoting but not separated then Jesus is simply a person that read the OT and used it to portray himself as Jesus. If he wasn't simply quoting it then how come Jesus, himself being God and knowing full well the plan was that he had to die to take away the sins of the world, would think he was separated.

    Unless his dying on the cross was not part of the plan.

    We have plenty of examples of people accepting impending death with stoicism, with either a belief of a greater afterlife or simply accepting the inevitable. But here we have Jesus, fully aware of the plan, crying out that he was abandoned! At the moment of his death he lost faith in himself?

    We also have the issue that it only appears in two of the bibles Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34. Surely that call into question the entire notion of him reciting Psalm as why would the other gospels not include such a significant remark?


  • Options
    #33
    santana75
    Registered Users Posts: 1,302 ✭✭✭santana75


    Leroy42 wrote: »
    I fully accept that he might have been quoting Psalm 22. But therein lies another problem. Was he simply quoting it to fulfil the prophecy or did he actually mean it?

    The short answer to that is........only God himself knows. What I do know is this though: If you have a question about any scripture, take it to God himself. Dont lean upon your own understanding. Proverbs 3:5 literally instructs us to do this:
    "Trust in the Lord with all your heart and lean not on your own understanding; in all your ways submit to him, and he will make your paths straight"

    Im not trying to dismiss your question, but I've found that people will have all sorts of notions about what things mean and usually theyre wrong. But if you go to the Lord and ask him he will make things clear to you.


  • Options
    #34
    Leroy42
    Registered Users Posts: 15,495 ✭✭✭✭Leroy42


    santana75 wrote: »
    Im not trying to dismiss your question, but I've found that people will have all sorts of notions about what things mean and usually theyre wrong. But if you go to the Lord and ask him he will make things clear to you.

    Isn't that just another way of saying that God has told you and that anyone that doesn't get it hasn't listened hard enough?

    But how does the Lord telling you not go against the notion of free will? If the Lord has spoken to you, whether or not you went looking, then your free will has been removed.

    And why doesn't this Lord simply explain it to everybody? He felt it fine to send himself down personally to interact with the people 2000+ years ago, but since then it is beyond him to actually explain what he meant?


Advertisement