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Contradictions within the Gospels?

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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,240 ✭✭✭✭Fanny Cradock


    Festus wrote: »

    In fairness to Rodney Stark, form what I have seen of him he does seem to be reasonable. Indeed, I seem to recall that he described himself as a sympathetic non-believing friend of Christianity. Or am I thinking of someone else :confused:


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    Festus wrote: »
    Reasonable assumptions. To assume. To make an ass of u and me.

    Any scholarly work that is based on assumption has to assume that any criticism is prepared to accept the assumption or otherwise assume there is a limit to the scholarliness of the article.

    Fine, criticise so instead of throwing out empty catch phrases. Do you suggest that the start figure of 1000 was too small, in which case Christianity would have grown at a slower rate than 40%. Do you suggest that the end figure of approx 6 million is too low? What then would you suggest is a more realistic figure for 300 AD. Or are you, as I believe, just criticizing for the sake of it? Give something positive instead of sniping from the bushes.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,240 ✭✭✭✭Fanny Cradock


    Or perhaps you want to clarify your point why one former Christian preacher

    Ehrman, a former preacher?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    Ehrman, a former preacher?

    Yeah, I think it was during his time at Moody Bible Institute, it may have been after that though.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,240 ✭✭✭✭Fanny Cradock


    I thought he more more in the scholarly line of things? Ah well!


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    What I'm criticising is your tendency to mix facts with your opinion and pass the result off as an all or nothing package.

    On the money! From when the posters user name was Charco, that has been my beef. Opinion, mixed with elements of history and presented articulately as fact. If a poster was genuinely interested in engaging us in historical study, their posts would not be so littered with anti-Christian sentiment. Though tbh, I prefer to know someones mindset. It helps decide whether to engage or not.

    I'm glad its not just me that seen this though.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    JimiTime wrote: »
    On the money! From when the posters user name was Charco, that has been my beef. Opinion, mixed with elements of history and presented articulately as fact. If a poster was genuinely interested in engaging us in historical study, their posts would not be so littered with anti-Christian sentiment. Though tbh, I prefer to know someones mindset. It helps decide whether to engage or not.

    I'm glad its not just me that seen this though.

    Where has my "anti-Christian sentiment" been here? Is it that I don't recognise Christianity as having been a major player on the world stage from the start? I don't think there is much doubt about this at all.

    Is it my suggestion that the Acts of Peter is not a reliable historical document? Forgive me for finding a book written 100+ years after the event which also recounts dogs having conversations with humans and cooked fish being resurrected to be perhaps slightly suspect.

    Is it my downplaying of the Christian persecution? Again this is accepted historical knowledge, this is not a controversial fringe opinion. The idea that Christians were this underground movement for 300 years having to draw fish symbols to identify themselves to fellow believers while constantly avoiding officials out to get them, this just isn't true. There were persecutions, but they were usually localised, sporadic, and more often than not instigated by normal citizens who despised the Christian cultists, not by the Emperor or provincial governors.

    Is it my opinion that a miracle claim can never be sufficiently attested so as to make it worthy of being considered "historical fact". If this is where your problem with what I say lies then can you find me a relatively up-to-date academic history textbook in use in a respected university written by a respected historian in which miracle claims such as the resurrection or Mohammed's ascension to Heaven on a horse are defended as being probable historical truths. I certainly have not come across anything comparable in any history book I have read, and I read an awful lot of history books. But maybe I'm reading the wrong history books, perhaps the resurrection or Mohammed's ascent to Heaven is now consider probable and is being taught to history students today, I would like to see where though.

    So I ask again. Where is my anti-Christian bias? There is anti-miracle bias no doubt, but as I say I think you will find any historian worth his salt will have an anti-miracle bias when making truth claims about the past.

    Where is my "anti-Christian sentiment" which you think would not be an opinion shared by the vast majority of historians today? Please just point it out.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime



    Where is my "anti-Christian sentiment" which you think would not be an opinion shared by the vast majority of historians today? Please just point it out.

    Your anti-Christian leaning oozes from your 'historical analysis' constantly. Your input here is only ever to belittle Christianity. What you say or conclude doesn't actually bother me. You are welcome to conclude whatever you like. Its how you present your 'historical analysis' as matter of fact.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    JimiTime wrote: »
    Your anti-Christian leaning oozes from your 'historical analysis' constantly. Your input here is only ever to belittle Christianity. What you say or conclude doesn't actually bother me. You are welcome to conclude whatever you like. Its how you present your 'historical analysis' as matter of fact.

    Might I suggest that you may need to read more history books and actually research the early years of Christianity within the context of the Roman Empire if you feel I am saying anything that is not widely accepted. If you can provide me with some historical research on any of these things which contradicts what I have said I would genuinely be delighted to know about it.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,353 ✭✭✭Galway K9


    Read the Gospel of St.Thomas....amazing writing.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Might I suggest that you may need to read more history books and actually research the early years of Christianity within the context of the Roman Empire if you feel I am saying anything that is not widely accepted. If you can provide me with some historical research on any of these things which contradicts what I have said I would genuinely be delighted to know about it.

    I don't think you get my objection.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    JimiTime wrote: »
    I don't think you get my objection.

    I have said before that there is no 100% certainty in history, there is only degrees of probability.

    Do I think Mohammed definitely didn't ascend to Heaven on a horse? No, I can't say that for definite.

    Do I think the most likely scenario is that he did ascend to Heaven on a horse? No, I think there is more likely explanations.

    Do I think Appolonius of Tyana definitely didn't predict the exact death of Emperor Domitian? No, I can't say that for definite.

    Do I think the most likely scenario is that he did predict the death? No, I think there are more likely explanations.

    Do I think Jesus definitely didn't come back from the dead? No, I can't say that for definite.

    Do I think the most likely scenario is that he did come back from the dead? No, I think there are more likely explanations.

    Am I picking on Christianity unfairly? Certainly not. I am being fully consistent on my attitude towards historical implausibilities in all matters, not just when it comes to Christians. I may be wrong but I have a sneaking suspicion that you would agree with me on most of my conclusions when it comes to historically implausible scenarios except when it comes to Christianity.

    That is up to you but I reject the claim that I am picking on Christians unfairly, I do not move the goalposts to make it harder for Christians to prove their extraordinary claims than I do for any other subject.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Am I picking on Christianity unfairly? Certainly not.

    I really don't care about 'fairness', or something being 'picked on'.

    That is up to you but I reject the claim that I am picking on Christians unfairly

    Thats fine, but certainly not what I've accused you of.
    , I do not move the goalposts to make it harder for Christians to prove their extraordinary claims than I do for any other subject.

    I never said you did. You have a worldview that states that anything beyond the materialist view is implausible. Many times has it been debated here about the resurrection for example. Materialists will believe anything BUT the concept of the resurrection. Mass hallucination etc are more plausible etc. How often we see academics of whatever field, enter into matters of spirituality etc and explain them away with articulate language and intellectualism. Simply put though, if one enters into these realms with a materialists view, there is likely going to be a materialists outcome. You are in a position to present theories and knowledge, but not to make conclusive statements incorporating your worldview mixed with facts, non-facts, disputed facts, deductions etc. The way you do this, is what I take exception to.

    You are not merely indulging in historical analysis, but rather historical analysis through the lens of materialism.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Pompey Magnus - the thread then surely isn't about contradictions, but about your unwillingness to consider anything that goes beyond material?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    Jakkass wrote: »
    Pompey Magnus - the thread then surely isn't about contradictions, but about your unwillingness to consider anything that goes beyond material?

    Indeed, back on topic please!


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,534 ✭✭✭Soul Winner


    I didn't say that, I said they believed what they claimed was true which is very different. Just because someone is willing to die for something does not mean what they believe is true. For example I don't believe that as the members of the Heaven's Gate Cult decided to commit suicide once the comet Hale Bopp came closest to the Earth in 1997 that this in any way supports their claim that there was a UFO following the comet which collected the souls of these people. I'm sure you don't believe their willingness to die for this belief in any way makes their belief more plausible, so at least I am being consistent here.

    Their willingness to die for this belief does not make what they believed in true, granted. But the disciples didn't just believe that Jesus rose from the dead, in fact most of them didn't believe in it when it was reported to them at first. They had to see Jesus for themselves in order to believe it. They then went onto preach this to everyone to such a degree that they pissed off the powers that be to such an extent that they were tortured and put to death in order to shut them up. If it was all a lie that they knew was a lie then they would not have chosen to suffer such horrific deaths. The Heaven's Gate cult genuinely believed what they were taught but they did not claim to be eye witnesses of it. There is a big difference between the two. A difference which has been pointed out over and over to atheists who seem to just lack the mental faculty to differentiate between the them. Pity.
    The problem is that these were nobodies. There are no non-biased sources for their deaths, even the canonical texts of the Christian religion did not feel that these guys deaths were in any way noteworthy. As you know the fifth book in the New Testament canon is called The Acts of the Apostles. It is a book devoted to portraying the lives of the Apostles after the death of Jesus. It only mentions the deaths of one of the twelve and that is Judas. If it didn't regard the details of their deaths as being in any way worthy of being recorded for posterity then I would have to wonder why.


    Actually the books of Acts also records the death of James the brother of John, who was put to death by the sword under Herod. Acts 12:2 And Stephen for that matter. But be that as it may, the book of Acts is not supposed to chronicle every single act of the apostles. It even starts out saying as much. It’s a continuation of the ministry of Jesus which Luke undertook when he started his Gospel. Luke didn't title it Acts of the Apostles, that title was given it a much later time because they didn't know what else to call it. The fact that they are nobodies (as you call them) would hardly inspire anyone to make up a lie about the nature of their deaths would it?
    Well if they weren't executed in the first place then there would be nobody who would put two and two together to think of recording this detail. If Peter died of a heart attack in his sleep as an old man in Jerusalem there would be no opponents who would have thought "We better make a record of this in case somebody in 100 years decides to claim that Peter actually was crucified upside down in Rome."

    The more common sense approach would be this. They recorded their deaths in this way because that's the way it happened. In any case, the fact that you fight to admit this just shows that you do agree that if they did suffer such horrific deaths then that would strongly suggest that they were actually telling the truth. If you didn't think so then you wouldn't go to such lengths to defend your weak position in relation to the accounts of their deaths.
    Nonsense to compare the two.

    Julius Caesar: the greatest general of the late Republic, Pontifex Maximus, conqueror of Gaul, a five time consul of Rome, dictator.

    Simon Peter: an illiterate Jewish peasant.

    Source of the death of Caesar: Seutonius and Plutarch, two very learned men of Senatorial rank who had access to the great imperial archives to research the massive amounts of contemporary accounts detailing the assassination of Caesar.

    Source of the death of Simon Peter: the Acts of Peter (author unknown), a book which contains stories of talking dogs and resurrected herrings.

    Yeah, the two examples really are comparable.

    The reason I pointed you to Seutonius and Plutarch was not to put either of them down, but rather to show you that they did not record anything about Julius Caesar until a hundred years after his death, which in the criteria you gave concerning the accounts of Church leaders had too much time elapsed to take the account seriously. If you're gonna apply that criteria to a particular set of historical records then you must apply it to all. But when I pointed that fact out to you, you then came back with the comment that Seutonius and Plutarch are somehow more reliable than others due to their status in society. Talk about changing the goals posts.
    It seems that Hippolytus did not make this claim, its found in Pseudo-Hippolytus' account of the lives of the twelve. I am open to correction on this but it seems it was someone who pretended to be Hippolytus who made this claim.
    So somebody pretended to be Hippolytus and recorded Peter’s death? Its amazing to see that when an uncomfortable fact appears that will refute your BS you will inevitably retreat to the age old shaky ground that it wasn’t really that person who wrote it, that it was somebody pretending to be the person who wrote the uncomfortable truth.
    As for Eusebius, he wrote about Peter's death circa 324 so that is too late to lend much credence to. The Acts of Peter were long written by this stage so Eusebius and Pseudo Hippolytus do not make for multiple attestations, they are later sources who were repeating a single earlier source.
    What makes you so convinced that Eusebius’ sole source for the death of Peter was this apocryphal epistle? Hippolytus also records Peter’s death, and that was before the Acts of Peter was written. That’s why you are trying to claim that that account must have been a forgery by somebody pretending to be Hippolytus?
    See my point above on no contemporary, even Luke, being bothered enough to record the deaths of the twelve. Why would they if there was nothing unusual about their deaths?
    Luke was Paul’s assistant. How could he possibly record the deaths of the other apostles? But just imagine he did for a second. The first thing you’d say would be that he couldn’t have recorded their deaths because he was with Paul.
    You seem to have the assumption that from the start Christianity was some massive shockwave that tore through the Roman Empire and that the highest of provincial officials were at loose ends trying to stem the flow of this new superpower religion which was growing at an enormous rate.
    That’s just you reading things into my post that are already floating around in you simple little imagination but bare no relevance to reality whatsoever.
    Sorry to dispose of this bad Hollywood fiction but for a long period your religion was a teeny tiny blip, a nothingness, not worthy of a second thought to the powers that be.
    Exactly. Which makes me wonder why you think people would go to the bother of making up stories about their deaths. I mean, if you want to win converts to your religion, the last thing you want to do is frighten potential converts off with stories of your leader’s martyrdoms, wouldn’t you agree?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    Back on topic again.

    Maybe we need to explain what a 'contradiction' actually means. A contradiction would be where the Bible says two things that are totally irreconcilable with each other - ie that no plausible explanation exists that might reconcile the two statements.

    A contradiction is not where plausible explanations do exist to reconcile two statements, but some one says, "Well, based on my prior assumptions as a materialistic atheist who denies all possibilities of miracles, I choose to reject those plausible explanations."

    So, for example, let's take the OP's reference to the Passover. One very plausible explanation, offered by the Oxford scholar RT France, is that Jesus shared a 'Passover meal' with His disciples a day early because He knew He would be otherwise engaged the next day.

    "The simplest solution, and the one assumed in this commentary, is that Jesus, knowing that he would be dead before the regular time for the meal, deliberately held it in secret one day early. . . .Of course it was strictly incorrect to hold a "Passover" at any time other than the evening of Nisan 14/15 [that is, at the end of the 14th and beginning of the 15th], but Jesus was not one to be bound by formal regulations in an emergency situation! . . . .It was therefore a Passover meal in intention, but without a lamb" (RT France

    This would actually be very consistent with the way we see Jesus reinterpreting and reapplying the Jewish law elsewhere in the Gospels (eg His insistence that it was OK to heal on the Sabbath, or for his disciples to eat without observing ritual cleansing). Certainly it is a plausible explanation - therefore it would be grossly inaccurate to call this a 'contradiction'.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    Well perhaps we need to just make things perfectly clear for what constitutes a contradiction.

    Person A makes the statement: Chelsea won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Person B makes the statement: Manchester United won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Now to an outsider who has no association with Persons A and B this is a contradiction, but along comes Person C with an interest in ensuring that both A and B are seen to be completely accurate and so he sits down and tries to think up an explanation.

    After some work he decides on this: "As I believe A and B are inerrant they could not have been referring to the same things. Person A must have been referring to the the 1st Team Premier League and Person B must have been referring to the Reserve Team Premier League, they didn't explicitly specify that both claims were for the 1st Team and as an explanation exists therefore there is no contradiction and my belief in inerrancy is vindicated."

    So far so good, but lets now go back to Persons A and B. What if both, when writing their statement, actually fully intended them to refer to the First Teams but Person B just got it wrong. They are no longer around to question, but Person C has come up with a possible explanation, even though his explanation is wrong.

    So if intended meanings behind statements are inconsistent but an incorrect explanation is provided does this mean that Person C can claim there is no contradiction, simply because an explanation can be thought up given enough time? If this is the case then that is all well and good but it renders the claim pretty much meaningless.

    Or does it mean that the burden is on the skeptic who suggests that the claims by Persons A and B are contradictory so that it is up to him to prove the impossible as A and B are no longer around to ask, if this is the case then fair enough again, but it renders the claim of no-contradictions pretty much meaningless again as by this criteria it would not be possible to claim any contradiction for any set of statements once someone provides an alternative, irregardless of whether the authors truely intended to say different things.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    Well perhaps we need to just make things perfectly clear for what constitutes a contradiction.

    Person A makes the statement: Chelsea won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Person B makes the statement: Manchester United won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Now to an outsider who has no association with Persons A and B this is a contradiction, but along comes Person C with an interest in ensuring that both A and B are seen to be completely accurate and so he sits down and tries to think up an explanation.

    After some work he decides on this: "As I believe A and B are inerrant they could not have been referring to the same things. Person A must have been referring to the the 1st Team Premier League and Person B must have been referring to the Reserve Team Premier League, they didn't explicitly specify that both claims were for the 1st Team and as an explanation exists therefore there is no contradiction and my belief in inerrancy is vindicated."

    So far so good, but lets now go back to Persons A and B. What if both, when writing their statement, actually fully intended them to refer to the First Teams but Person B just got it wrong. They are no longer around to question, but Person C has come up with a possible explanation, even though his explanation is wrong.

    So if intended meanings behind statements are inconsistent but an incorrect explanation is provided does this mean that Person C can claim there is no contradiction, simply because an explanation can be thought up given enough time? If this is the case then that is all well and good but it renders the claim pretty much meaningless.

    Or does it mean that the burden is on the skeptic who suggests that the claims by Persons A and B are contradictory so that it is up to him to prove the impossible as A and B are no longer around to ask, if this is the case then fair enough again, but it renders the claim of no-contradictions pretty much meaningless again as by this criteria it would not be possible to claim any contradiction for any set of statements once someone provides an alternative, irregardless of whether the authors truely intended to say different things.

    Your analogy is a load of crock, primarily because you are using something we already know to be a contradiction.

    But what has been offered on this thread is nothing like that.

    All we have heard is that Jesus and His disiples celebrated a meal (which appears to have been a Passover meal) on Thursday night. But that the Jewish hierarchy observed Passover on Friday night.

    That might indeed promote initeresting discussion as to why Jesus and His disciples did such a thing, but to try to promote it as a 'contradiction' is plainly laughable.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus


    Why are the works of these two highly respected scholars are not worthy of your time and effort? I am at a loss to understand.

    I don't have your agenda.


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  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus


    In fairness to Rodney Stark, form what I have seen of him he does seem to be reasonable. Indeed, I seem to recall that he described himself as a sympathetic non-believing friend of Christianity. Or am I thinking of someone else :confused:

    Stark's ok but I find him more populist than scholar. he has some good points when they are not taken out of context.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus


    Well perhaps we need to just make things perfectly clear for what constitutes a contradiction.

    Person A makes the statement: Chelsea won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Person B makes the statement: Manchester United won the 2009/10 English Premier League.

    Now to an outsider who has no association with Persons A and B this is a contradiction, but along comes Person C with an interest in ensuring that both A and B are seen to be completely accurate and so he sits down and tries to think up an explanation.

    After some work he decides on this: "As I believe A and B are inerrant they could not have been referring to the same things. Person A must have been referring to the the 1st Team Premier League and Person B must have been referring to the Reserve Team Premier League, they didn't explicitly specify that both claims were for the 1st Team and as an explanation exists therefore there is no contradiction and my belief in inerrancy is vindicated."

    So far so good, but lets now go back to Persons A and B. What if both, when writing their statement, actually fully intended them to refer to the First Teams but Person B just got it wrong. They are no longer around to question, but Person C has come up with a possible explanation, even though his explanation is wrong.

    So if intended meanings behind statements are inconsistent but an incorrect explanation is provided does this mean that Person C can claim there is no contradiction, simply because an explanation can be thought up given enough time? If this is the case then that is all well and good but it renders the claim pretty much meaningless.

    Or does it mean that the burden is on the skeptic who suggests that the claims by Persons A and B are contradictory so that it is up to him to prove the impossible as A and B are no longer around to ask, if this is the case then fair enough again, but it renders the claim of no-contradictions pretty much meaningless again as by this criteria it would not be possible to claim any contradiction for any set of statements once someone provides an alternative, irregardless of whether the authors truely intended to say different things.

    I think you are working on the premise that the Bible was written with no "outside" assistance and is purely the work of human minds and hands.

    Also the above example is one of your own construction so it would be expected to fit with your proposition. I don't see any contradictions of this nature in the Bible.

    Anyway, what ever "contradiction" you find, you will not be satisfied by any answer given because you are like the Pharisees in Matthew 19. An explanation was provided but still they did not understand. Why? Because the explanations are there for those who can receive it. If you don't have the Holy Spirit and your mind isnarrowed and closed. Faith is a requirement to understanding the Bible and this has been proven over and over again on this forum with discussions with atheists and non-believers.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    In fairness to Rodney Stark, form what I have seen of him he does seem to be reasonable. Indeed, I seem to recall that he described himself as a sympathetic non-believing friend of Christianity. Or am I thinking of someone else :confused:

    You may be thinking of Diarmaid MacCulloch, the author of A History of Christianity: The First Three Thousand Years. In the TV series based on the book broadcast about a year ago, he discussed how he was a descendant of a long line of Anglican clergy but now was not a believer - he described himself as a "candid friend of Christianity". See my post on the thread discussing the TV series.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    hivizman wrote: »
    You may be thinking of Diarmaid MacCulloch, the author of A History of Christianity: The First Three Thousand Years. In the TV series based on the book broadcast about a year ago, he discussed how he was a descendant of a long line of Anglican clergy but now was not a believer - he described himself as a "candid friend of Christianity". See my post on the thread discussing the TV series.

    Stark's personal religious position as per his wikipedia entry:
    Personal religious faith

    In their 1987 book A Theory of Religion, Stark and Bainbridge describe themselves as "personally incapable of religions faith".[4] While reluctant to discuss his own religious views, he stated in a 2004 interview at the time that he was not a man of faith, but also not an atheist:

    Interviewer: You once wrote that you’re “not religious as that term is conventionally understood.”
    " Rodney Stark: That’s true, though I’ve never been an atheist. Atheism is an active faith; it says, “I believe there is no God.” But I don’t know what I believe. I was brought up a Lutheran in Jamestown, North Dakota. I have trouble with faith. I’m not proud of this. I don’t think it makes me an intellectual. I would believe if I could, and I may be able to before it’s over. I would welcome that." [5]

    In a 2007 interview, after accepting an appointment at Baylor University, Stark indicated that his self-understanding had changed and that he could now be described as an "independent Christian." In this interview Stark recollects that he has "always been a “cultural” Christian" understood by him as having "been strongly committed to Western Civilization." Of his previous positions he wrote: "I was never an atheist, but I probably could have been best described as an agnostic. (wikipedia)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    PDN wrote: »
    Your analogy is a load of crock, primarily because you are using something we already know to be a contradiction.

    Actually it is something that appears to be a contradiction. Without being able to question the authors further we cannot know for absolute certain if one intended to refer to the Reserve teams or not.

    So too with the Gospels, we have one side which claims that Jesus ate a Passover meal, now we know that there were Jews who rejected the Temple Cult and ate a Passover on a different day than designated by the Temple Priests but these Jews did not therefore travel to Jerusalem for the celebration and did not recognise the Temple in Jerusalem as being any way significant to their faith. We know Jesus and his followers did travel to Jerusalem, that Jesus did attend the Temple and that after his death his followers did continue worshipping in the Temple and so to suggest that they observed a different Passover timetable to the rest of the Temple observant Jews will need some explaining as all the evidence points to them being fully committed Temple Jews.

    Then we have the Gospel of John, a Gospel with a clear agenda to portray Jesus as the sacrificed lamb of God and the only Gospel to make such a claim. It is "coincidentally" also the only Gospel to explicitly say that Jesus was sacrificed at the same time as the lambs were being sacrificed at the Temple, again "coincidentally" it is the only Gospel not to identify the last supper as a Passover meal and also has a further "coincidence" as being the only Gospel to point out the Jewish Priests were unwilling to defile themselves by entering Pilate's residence.
    All we have heard is that Jesus and His disiples celebrated a meal (which appears to have been a Passover meal) on Thursday night. But that the Jewish hierarchy observed Passover on Friday night.

    Correction 1: In not one single Gospel does the meal "appear" to be a Passover meal. In 3 Gospels it is absolutely explicitly said to be a Passover meal and in the other there is no suggestion whatsoever that it was a Passover meal. In none does it "appear" to be a Passover meal.

    Correction 2: "The Jewish hierarchy and all Temple observant Jews observed Passover on Friday night."

    So if you wish to argue that Jesus and his followers were not Temple observant Jews yet we know they paradoxically placed a very high importance on the Temple then you can fire ahead and best of luck trying to explain that.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus



    Correction 1: In not one single Gospel does the meal "appear" to be a Passover meal. In 3 Gospels it is absolutely explicitly said to be a Passover meal and in the other there is no suggestion whatsoever that it was a Passover meal. In none does it "appear" to be a Passover meal.

    Correction 2: "The Jewish hierarchy and all Temple observant Jews observed Passover on Friday night."

    So if you wish to argue that Jesus and his followers were not Temple observant Jews yet we know they paradoxically placed a very high importance on the Temple then you can fire ahead and best of luck trying to explain that.

    Christianity has its roots in Judeaism.
    It pays to try to understand it a little.
    It also pays to know a little more about Jesus.

    Your argument is based on the Judean Passover.

    Jesus came from Galilee.
    Jesus and the disciples ate the Galiliean Passover.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    Festus wrote: »
    Jesus came from Galilee.
    Jesus and the disciples ate the Galiliean Passover.

    The idea of a Galilean passover celebrated on a different day to that in Jerusalem is entirely speculative with not a shred of evidence in support of it. There was no such thing as a "Jerusalem Passover" and a "Galilean Passover".


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus


    The idea of a Galilean passover celebrated on a different day to that in Jerusalem is entirely speculative with not a shred of evidence in support of it. There was no such thing as a "Jerusalem Passover" and a "Galilean Passover".

    I'd like to see you prove that.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭Pompey Magnus


    Festus wrote: »
    I'd like to see you prove that.

    You'd like to see me prove false a speculative suggestion based not on written evidence from historical Jewish sources but rather on the thinking of one German Christian living in the 1940s?

    Well apart from the complete lack of any single shred of evidence which suggests that this is actually true then I don't know what else you want. This guy just made the idea up in his own head, why on Earth should it be up to me to disprove it? You were the one who brought it up, you go and prove it is true if you want it accepted as proof that no contradiction exists.


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  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,087 ✭✭✭Festus


    You'd like to see me prove false a speculative suggestion based not on written evidence from historical Jewish sources but rather on the thinking of one German Christian living in the 1940s?

    Who are you talking about?
    Well apart from the complete lack of any single shred of evidence which suggests that this is actually true then I don't know what else you want. This guy just made the idea up in his own head, why on Earth should it be up to me to disprove it? You were the one who brought it up, you go and prove it is true if you want it accepted as proof that no contradiction exists.

    38,700. Take your pick http://www.google.ie/search?aq=f&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8&q=Galilean+Passover#sclient=psy&hl=en&q=Galilean+Passover&aq=f&aqi=&aql=&oq=Galilean+Passover&gs_rfai=&pbx=1&fp=e8f59a40fbc345a3


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