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Micheal Nugent V WC

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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,363 ✭✭✭nozzferrahhtoo


    Maybe Nugent might comment on that as there is often a good explanation for it. I can not remember it now, but I remember there was a rational technical explanation for why Dinesh DSouza appeared to be screaming like a mad lunatic in his debate with Daniel Dennett. It is so long since I heard the explanation now that I forget what it was ;) (think the debate was 9 years ago now? Long before Dsouza became a convicted criminal) But I remember at the time thinking "ah yes, that makes sense, I will give DSouza the benefit of the doubt on this one".


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 533 ✭✭✭Michael OBrien


    Maybe Nugent might comment on that as there is often a good explanation for it. I can not remember it now, but I remember there was a rational technical explanation for why Dinesh DSouza appeared to be screaming like a mad lunatic in his debate with Daniel Dennett. It is so long since I heard the explanation now that I forget what it was ;) (think the debate was 9 years ago now? Long before Dsouza became a convicted criminal) But I remember at the time thinking "ah yes, that makes sense, I will give DSouza the benefit of the doubt on this one".

    From the reasonable debate site they said they had audio issues, technical ones.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,363 ✭✭✭nozzferrahhtoo



    Forgive me if I am wrong but I THINK the link above does not include the Q+A? Not sure. But it appears AI have uploaded the entire debate here which does include it.

    The facebook link has 20 minutes of white noise at the start before the debate starts and is just under 2 hours. The You Tube link is 2 hours 10 minutes without the 20 minute white noise. So my guess is I am right but I haven't checked :)


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,086 ✭✭✭Michael Nugent


    Here's the full debate from our camera.

    Their recording team had technical problems, I'm not sure what they were.



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 533 ✭✭✭Michael OBrien


    I asked the question at this time in the Q&A. I also did further research that showed that Bart Ehrman has some interest in the idea of Jesus not being buried due to Roman shaming of crucifixion.
    I only had about a minute to compose the question unfortunately but my reasoning for doing so was to offer a challenge to Craigs argument that the best explanation for the empty tomb is a supernatural intervention. My view was that Jesus might not have been buried in that fashion at all, because while he WAS a jew and there WERE examples of bodies being allowed buriel, it was not common and not reserved for peacetime as standard. Also since Jesus was allegedly hated by the Jewish authorities they would not have been greatly concerned about giving him burial rites and might have actually found it useful to shame a heretic by denying him those rites.
    The goal along this reasoning is not to prove that jesus was not buried, but to show a more likely scenario often overlooked in such debates by Craig, that is plausible and more likely than a human being raised from the dead.
    What do other people think?

    Later his followers may have claimed a buriel, but with no body, then it would have been by default an empty tomb.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 27,491 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    I see where you're coming from. But I think you have the problem that, if burial of execution victims was not normal (and I believe it wasn't), then anybody shown an empty tomb would not regard it as evidence that Jesus had risen (or, for that matter, that his corpse had been stolen). They'd first look for some reason to accept that he had ever been buried there in the first place, since no burial would have been expected. The usual fate for crucifixion victims was to be left hanging and, if Jesus had been left hanging, there'd be plenty of witnesses to the fact, since it was a public place.

    Which means, I think, that if you're trying to cast about for evidence in support of a claim that Jesus is risen, you're unlikely to point to an empty tomb, since it's not evidence that would be expected, or that would seem particularly compelling, and any claim that he had been buried in the tomb (a) would require an explanation as to how and why he had been buried in the first place, and (b) if false, would be fairly easily refuted.

    To my mind, the most plausible explanation for the "empty tomb" detail in the resurrection stories is that Jesus had actually been buried there, unusual as that might have been. If he hadn't been, any story that he had been would have been unlikely to pass muster. That doesn't mean that he rose from the dead, obviously - he could have been buried there and his body later removed. But, as an explanation for the empty tomb "he was never in the tomb in the first place!" seems to me to have its own problems.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    I see where you're coming from. But I think you have the problem that, if burial of execution victims was not normal (and I believe it wasn't), then anybody shown an empty tomb would not regard it as evidence that Jesus had risen (or, for that matter, that his corpse had been stolen). They'd first look for some reason to accept that he had ever been buried there in the first place, since no burial would have been expected. The usual fate for crucifixion victims was to be left hanging and, if Jesus had been left hanging, there'd be plenty of witnesses to the fact, since it was a public place.

    Which means, I think, that if you're trying to cast about for evidence in support of a claim that Jesus is risen, you're unlikely to point to an empty tomb, since it's not evidence that would be expected, or that would seem particularly compelling, and any claim that he had been buried in the tomb (a) would require an explanation as to how and why he had been buried in the first place, and (b) if false, would be fairly easily refuted.

    To my mind, the most plausible explanation for the "empty tomb" detail in the resurrection stories is that Jesus had actually been buried there, unusual as that might have been. If he hadn't been, any story that he had been would have been unlikely to pass muster. That doesn't mean that he rose from the dead, obviously - he could have been buried there and his body later removed. But, as an explanation for the empty tomb "he was never in the tomb in the first place!" seems to me to have its own problems.

    You presume that anything we know about Jesus is based on eye-witness reports. You are also arguing that 'it must be true, because nobody said otherwise', which is also an incredibly weak argument (if the accounts were written decades later, who could there be to refute it?). Other details in the Passion story are highly questionable (the trial, the Barabbas incident, the character of Pilate, etc), so the most plausible explanation must be 'the story was put together many years after the purported events'.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 27,491 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    We know the story - as we have it - was put together many years after the events it purports to describe, Paul. That's not in any doubt. And I'm not arguing that "it must be so, because nobody said otherwise"; I'm only pointing out that, just as we can subject all the elements in the canonical story to critical analysis, so the elements of alternative hypotheses (such as "Jesus was never in the tomb") can be subject to a similar critical analysis.

    "Jesus was never in the tomb" has one thing going for it - executed criminals were not normally laid in tombs, so why was Jesus? - and one thing going against it - if executed criminals were not normally entombed, and Jesus in particular was not entombed, how did the idea that he was entombed ever acquire any currency? If we're going to consider the first objection we must also, to be consistent, consider the second.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,247 ✭✭✭pauldla


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    We know the story - as we have it - was put together many years after the events it purports to describe, Paul. That's not in any doubt. And I'm not arguing that "it must be so, because nobody said otherwise"; I'm only pointing out that, just as we can subject all the elements in the canonical story to critical analysis, so the elements of alternative hypotheses (such as "Jesus was never in the tomb") can be subject to a similar critical analysis.

    You and I know that, P, but many others still cling to the belief that the Gospels are eye-witness accounts etc. It's worth pointing out is mistaken, lest it cramps any further development of the conversation.
    "Jesus was never in the tomb" has one thing going for it - executed criminals were not normally laid in tombs, so why was Jesus? - and one thing going against it - if executed criminals were not normally entombed, and Jesus in particular was not entombed, how did the idea that he was entombed ever acquire any currency? If we're going to consider the first objection we must also, to be consistent, consider the second.

    Indeed, as far as I know the remains of only one victim of Roman crucifixion have been recovered from a tomb. 'Jesus was never in the tomb" can be explained as the normal practice of Roman crucifixion, or it can be explained in an even simpler way (will I say it? :)). As for how the idea of a tomb could gain currency, the simplest answer is that the narrative demanded it: one cannot rise from the tomb if there is no tomb to rise from. It should be no surprise that such details could be added to the narrative after a long period of time; as another example, when did the Assumption become doctrine?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 27,491 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    I remind myself, Paul, that we said we wouldn't do this.

    I don't think the historicity of Jesus was really the focus of Michael's address, and there may be other aspects of the evening that people want to discuss, including people who were present on the occasion, which neither of us were. Much as we might enjoy it, I don't think this thread will be improved for others if you and I have the same conversation here that we have previously had elsewhere.

    So, I propose a truce; we drop the subject here. If either of us wants to continue the discussion about historicity, we should open a new thread (or revive an old one). To be honest, I'm not minded to do that at the moment (though I dare say if you are I will rise to the bait).


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 23,240 ✭✭✭✭Akrasia


    Historicity argument aside, Craig's scientific understanding of the origins of the Universe are misleading and in my view dishonest (because he has been informed of the science many many times but still continues to use the same incorrect premises to his cosmological argument.)

    The singularity that created space and time k the big bang) was the beginning of our region of spacetime. No credible scientist would ever conclude that he knows for certain what caused the big bang or that it caused itself.

    There are many hypothesis for what may have created the conditions for the inflation event, and most of those posit either an eternal cycle of one universe inflating and recycling, or many universes spawning from some other kind of dimensions of space time that we have not got observational access to.

    The Craig conclusion that God did it simply does not follow. What is so much more plausible, is that a set of physical conditions exist somewhere, following simple rules that give rise to the illusion of complexity and the inevitable spawning of at least one universe given the infinity of "time" that makes probable events inevitable

    Chomsky(2017) on the Republican party

    "Has there ever been an organisation in human history that is dedicated, with such commitment, to the destruction of organised human life on Earth?"



  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    I asked the question at this time in the Q&A. I also did further research that showed that Bart Ehrman has some interest in the idea of Jesus not being buried due to Roman shaming of crucifixion.
    I only had about a minute to compose the question unfortunately but my reasoning for doing so was to offer a challenge to Craigs argument that the best explanation for the empty tomb is a supernatural intervention. My view was that Jesus might not have been buried in that fashion at all, because while he WAS a jew and there WERE examples of bodies being allowed buriel, it was not common and not reserved for peacetime as standard. Also since Jesus was allegedly hated by the Jewish authorities they would not have been greatly concerned about giving him burial rites and might have actually found it useful to shame a heretic by denying him those rites.
    The goal along this reasoning is not to prove that jesus was not buried, but to show a more likely scenario often overlooked in such debates by Craig, that is plausible and more likely than a human being raised from the dead.
    What do other people think?

    Later his followers may have claimed a buriel, but with no body, then it would have been by default an empty tomb.

    Well, here's the thing.

    As far as crucifixion goes, the Roman crucifixion method was adopted from a Greek execution method begun in Athens known as apotympanismos which was reserved for a particular class of criminal known as kakourgoi which included thieves, pickpockets, traitors and kidnappers. The condemned would be fixed to a cross using iron shackles around the wrists, neck and ankles. Since they weren't nailed to the cross, death usually came about from thirst and exhaustion. This was, it seems, the primary intent of the execution method, a long drawn out death for, at that time, socially reprehensible crimes. So, although the Romans modified the method slightly the basic intent of a public drawn out death remained. Thus there was very little regard for the condemned either during or after the execution. Usually the bodies were dumped in mass graves.

    However, if we have any reason to believe the gospel accounts at all (and I'm not sure we do)*, then there are some persuasive reasons to believe that at the very least Jesus was buried.
    Firstly, the narrative is more coherent with at least some form of proper burial. It was the Jews who sought Jesus' execution and their theological basis for doing so as outlined in Mark 14:53-65 was that Jesus was guilty of at least blasphemy and prophesying falsely as condemned by Leviticus 24 and Deuteronomy 13 respectively, both capital offenses under Jewish law. However, rather than denying Jesus burial rites as per your theory, the burial of Jesus is best explained by the Old Testament. You see, the Pharisees are depicted as a group obstinately dedicated to observing the letter rather than the spirit of the law. So when Joseph of Arimathea goes to ask for Jesus' body, it is not born out of any sympathy for Jesus (since he voted to have Jesus put to death in the first place) but rather fulfilling his obligation to the law:

    "If someone guilty of a capital offense is put to death and their body is hung on a tree, you must not leave the body hanging on the tree overnight. Be sure to bury it that same day, because anyone who is hung on a tree is under God’s curse."
    Deuteronomy 21:22-23


    Secondly, it's important to remember Mark's overall objective in creating the passion narrative. (I say Mark because all the other gospels use a modified version of Mark's narrative). Mark's gospel comes 40 years after the supposed death of Jesus and 20 years after Paul's earliest writings. In it's original form it ends on a cliffhanger and doesn't actually feature a resurrection. Also, as previously discussed on this thread the idea of a dying and rising Messiah runs counter to the concept of a Messiah that Jewish people of the 1st century would have understood. Mark's narrative being so far removed from the events is best seen as an attempt to keep faith in Jesus alive in light of his death. The resurrection is a way of keeping the Jesus as Messiah story alive by having the potential for him to come back and fulfill the actual Messianic prophecies remain open. So Mark opens up the potential for this possibility by getting the ball (or the stone) rolling by having the tomb observed to be empty. Mark's intention is to leave the possibility of a resurrected Jesus as an exercise for the reader or to paraphrase Mickey O'Neill from Snatch, to say something without talking.

    *As I mention above, all of this is based on the extent to which we can believe that the gospels are in any way reliable. With specific regard to the passion, I'm not sure that's at all true. Like I said above also, Mark's gospel is the basis for all of the other passion accounts. We have good reason to believe that Mark has no clue about the actual customs, traditions and laws of the time and place he refers to in his gospel.
    Firstly, we are told in Mark 16:4 that:

    "But when they looked up, they saw that the stone, which was very large, had been rolled away."

    This illustrates the loss of perspective that occurs sometimes in pseudohistorical fiction. At the time when Mark's gospel was written it was becoming relatively common for spherical or at least spheroidal boulders to be used to close the entrances to tombs. However, at the time when the gospel is set, this wasn't the case. Archaeological evidence shows that the stones used to seal tomb entrances early in the 1st century were cube shaped and that round stones were only used by the mega rich and powerful (e.g. Herod).
    Secondly, Mark makes a number of mistakes surrounding the trial and burial of Jesus which shows his ignorance of Jewish laws and customs:

    • The trial would never have been held at night as it would have been contrary to Jewish law.
    • The trial would only have taken place in the Hall of Hewn Stones in the temple and not in the home of a council member.
    • The trial and execution would never have been conducted during Passover
    • Sentences in such trials were not pronounced for 24 hours and not immediately in the case of Jesus.
    • Mark has Jesus buried in a single piece of cloth rather than the traditional individual wrappings (as mentioned by John)


    Finally, as outlined in detail previously on this thread Mark makes other factual mistakes and borrows from Greek mythology, literature and the Old Testament which reveals his gospel as a fictional novel (like Neal Stephenson's Cryptonomicon) rather than a historical account.


    In short, the best explanation for the empty tomb when the gospels are taken at face value is that Joseph of Arimathea buried Jesus out of consideration for his obligation to the law but simply had Jesus body dumped somewhere else once those obligations were fulfilled. However, the idea that we should at all take the gospels at face value is unsupportable by what we know about them.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    "Jesus was never in the tomb" has one thing going for it - executed criminals were not normally laid in tombs, so why was Jesus? - and one thing going against it - if executed criminals were not normally entombed, and Jesus in particular was not entombed, how did the idea that he was entombed ever acquire any currency? If we're going to consider the first objection we must also, to be consistent, consider the second.

    Just to expand on this point very briefly.

    "if executed criminals were not normally entombed, and Jesus in particular was not entombed, how did the idea that he was entombed ever acquire any currency?"

    Well, FWIW here's what I think. Let's for a moment take the pre-trial story of Jesus at face value. There is a distinct sentiment in the gospels as Jesus acquiring followers not only for his miracles and speeches but also under the auspices that he was the Messiah, as in the actual concept of a Jewish Messiah, a religious and political leader who would rebuild the temple, unify the Jewish people, create a single world government and a single religion. The idea of Jesus dying or even having to die doesn't fit within this whole narrative. So, to at least some of those around at the time there must have a certain sense of confusion about how Jesus' death fit into the idea of a Messiah. As explained by Lorne Dawson in the linked paper earlier and by Penn and Teller using the example of Elvis, there were almost certainly (if Jesus really existed and was really crucified) people who needed some way of denying the death of Jesus. Over the decades this morphed into the idea of the resurrection.
    However, as has been pointed out, crucified criminals were rarely buried in tombs if at all so why have Jesus depicted as being buried. Well, firstly, it fits the story that Mark has already built up in the rest of the gospel. But also it makes the denouement of the Jesus story that bit neater. If Jesus was dumped in a mass grave whose location was unknown we could still have a risen Jesus. He could simply have just magically reappeared right in front of the disciples in a locked room. But given the trademark of Mark's gospel that is the employment of sophisticated dramatic techniques (e.g. dramatic irony), it's unlikely. It's much neater and more impactful to have a cliffhanger ending where the possibility of a resurrected Jesus is implied but not explicitly stated. It whets the appetite of the reader and draws people to your religion to find out more about Jesus.
    The empty tomb argument is a microcosm of the overall mythicist vs. historicist argument. Neither argument completely explains all the evidence without leaving questions or problems and the truth is something which is probably a) unknowable and b) lies somewhere bang in the middle of the two explanations.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,594 ✭✭✭oldrnwisr


    Akrasia wrote: »
    Historicity argument aside, Craig's scientific understanding of the origins of the Universe are misleading and in my view dishonest (because he has been informed of the science many many times but still continues to use the same incorrect premises to his cosmological argument.)

    Well, for the record, he does exactly the same thing with the Jesus argument. He continues to use the same factually incorrect statements about the New Testament that he has been corrected on by numerous New Testament Scholars including Bart Ehrman, Richard Carrier, Gerd Ludemann, John Shelby Spong, James Crossley etc. Craig seems to be pretty impervious to facts in general and seems to regard his debates as a method of preaching his view of the world (similar to Galileo's Dialogo sopra i due massimi sistemi del mondo).
    It's just that for the most part even less people seem to be interested in the nuances and depths of the Jesus argument than the cosmological argument. Also, given the perils of debating Craig outlined by Nozz in the OP, most liberal NT scholars are unwilling to give Craig the oxygen of publicity.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,989 ✭✭✭✭recedite


    Did anybody notice Craigs slightly disengenous methods of giving crediblity to his own suppositions? He starts off by saying "according to....." and then goes on to elaborate. Which puts him in the position of someone commenting on an allegation, as opposed to being the alligator himself. Its a ploy commonly used by newspapers when they want to report some contoversial or possibly false story, while remaning immune to libel proceedings themselves.

    So in this debate, Craig announces the historicity of Jesus as being factual "according to Jacob Kremer" who we would assume to be a historian, given the context.
    But after a little fact checking, Kremer turns out to be an obscure (though well respected) Austrian theologian priest, whose words are open to interpretation, and his opinion cannot be clarified because he is now dead.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,779 ✭✭✭MrPudding


    recedite wrote: »
    Its a ploy commonly used by newspapers when they want to report some contoversial or possibly false story, while remaning immune to libel proceedings themselves.
    Also used by the donald and Spicer.

    MrP


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 27,491 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    recedite wrote: »
    Its a ploy commonly used by newspapers when they want to report some contoversial or possibly false story, while remaning immune to libel proceedings themselves.
    For the record, it's not effective to keep you immune from libel proceedings. If you publish a defamatory statement you're on the hook, and it's no defence to say that, when publishing it, you attributed it to someone else. It's more used for plausible political deniability than to reduce legal risk.

    But, yes, as Mr P points out, it's a favourite Trumpism. In fact Trump regularly doubles down on the technique, attributing the view he is promoting not merely to someone else, but to an imaginary friend he has invented for the purpose called Many-People-Are-Saying.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,989 ✭✭✭✭recedite


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    For the record, it's not effective to keep you immune from libel proceedings. If you publish a defamatory statement you're on the hook...
    Its a bit of a minefield, but the reporting of any statement made within the confines of Dail/Parliament is protected by absolute "privilege", and allegations made anywhere outside can be reported if the reporter either is unaware of the defamation, or is aware but is reporting "in the public interest", as inadvertently proved by Albert Reynolds.

    But yes, its most often used for "plausible deniability" or simply as a mechanism to shrug off any necessity on behalf of the "reporter" to personally prove the original statement or allegation, as per the habit of DJ Trump, and our friend here, Mr Craig.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 966 ✭✭✭equivariant


    oldrnwisr wrote: »
    Well, for the record, he does exactly the same thing with the Jesus argument...
    I propose "the Craig Fallacy". Some key properties of the Craig Fallacy
    1. Advance a superficially logical argument based on a misuse of a technical premise/deduction that is typically misunderstood by non specialists.
    2. Claim that the premise/deduction is widely accepted and utterly uncontroversial when it is not.
    3. Continue to defend the argument when the a premise/deduction has been shown to be suspect. Most importantly, continue to defend the argument without any significant change to your defence despite the fact that it has been shown to be faulty.
    4. Construct a defence of a certain position based on multiple instances of this type argumentation and then claim that this multitude further strengthens your position.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,989 ✭✭✭✭recedite


    Don't forget..
    5. Find somebody who shares your opinion, then when giving your opinion say "according to..." thereby backing yourself up with an authoritative source (apparently) and also eliminating the usual requirement to defend your own opinion.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 624 ✭✭✭.........


    I take with all the complaining here Craig must have won easily


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