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English Rules

  • 10-04-2003 3:56pm
    Registered Users Posts: 35,524 ✭✭✭✭

    Seeing the i before e rule made me remember that English has a load of strange rules.
    • I before E except after c

    Umm, thats all I remember!


  • Registered Users Posts: 19,608 ✭✭✭✭sceptre

    & not even a very scientific (cough) rule - more of a rough guideline.

  • Registered Users Posts: 35,524 ✭✭✭✭Gordon

    Bah! That's twice you've foiled me sceptre

    /me shakes fist with little force

  • Registered Users Posts: 14,330 ✭✭✭✭Amz

    Why isn't phonetically spelled phonetically?

  • Moderators, Social & Fun Moderators Posts: 10,501 Mod ✭✭✭✭ecksor

    Why isn't 'palindrome' a palindrome?

  • Registered Users Posts: 35,524 ✭✭✭✭Gordon

    And lisp? Mind you I like the way "sibilance" has two s sounds.

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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 681 ✭✭✭Kopf

    Why isn't phonetically spelled phonetically?

    Why would it be?
    Why isn't 'palindrome' a palindrome?

    Why Would it be?

    A good rule for english (and most other languages) is that the subjective/nominative case can never be used with a preposition.. Some people make a lot of mistakes with this one, trying to come across as having a poetic command of language and just falling flat on their faces:

    "There's nothing between he and I any more" / "There's nothing between him and I any more"

    Both examples, are of course wrong. The correct is:

    "There's nothing between him and me any more"

  • Moderators, Social & Fun Moderators Posts: 10,501 Mod ✭✭✭✭ecksor

    I was being whimsical. I think Amz was too.

  • Registered Users Posts: 1,967 ✭✭✭Dun

    A friend and I were having a discussion about English rules a couple of years ago. The main rule we were talking about was the "John and I" versus "me and John" or "John and me".

    Basically it boils down to this. His argument was that "me and John"/"John and me" is wrong. Full stop. My point was that as language is living, if a majority of speakers use "me and John" (and I feel that most people would use it, but perhaps I'm just being unperceptive), then it's correct. It has become a new rule. Or a regulatory exception to the rule, if you want. Otherwise we'd still be speaking the "original" human language, if there was only one to begin with. In other words, language is spoken, and we shouldn't be told what we can say by people who write grammar books. Obviously I don't mean to the extent where if someone starts speaking like Yoda then they're still "correct", but rather if it's common practice, how can it or why should it be wrong?

    Perhaps I'm just spouting bull, but I'd be interested in hearing what other people think.