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Separation & Redundancy

  • 23-01-2019 10:56am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 43


    Just a question regarding redundancy. Marriage is over and have been living apart for 3 years, but we aren't legally separated yet. I'm due a redundancy payout and am wondering what the implications are for this. Is she entitled to half of it? Thanks


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 4,803 ✭✭✭Xterminator


    yes - technically.

    you are not separated in the legal sense. Your marriage is still a legal and binding contract.

    if she demands 1/2 of everything this will be considered by the judge during seperation/divorce as part of communal property. As will your pension savings etc.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,359 ✭✭✭Fiona


    I am separated since 2012 and am getting to the courts soon. My husband got redundancy during that time but we both signed nil pension adjustment orders so my asset is being protected so I figured why bother try even go after it.

    Long spent now he used it to buy another house.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 27,254 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    No, she's not entitled to half of it, or to any particular fraction of it.

    But it all goes into the mix in looking at your respective assets, needs, etc. So it will be taken into account in determining the property settlement.


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