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family law

  • 10-08-2015 10:16am
    #1
    huwants2no
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 24 ✭


    I own an affordable house with my x partner.we were never married. She has now married and lives in this house with her hubby and our 2 kids.
    I was paying toward kids and the mortgage but cant afford.both now so was gonna stop paying for the house. Am i legally obliged to pay toward mortgage as my name is on the deeds?
    Also if the house was sold later on is it always split 50/50 or would one recieve moneys relevant to how much of the mortgage one had contributed??
    I want to ask about a couple of scenarios if we ended up in family law court but will leave it at that for the moment. Probably enough in the those questions!
    thanks in advance:)


Comments

  • #2
    chops018
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,458 ✭✭✭chops018


    It would depend on a lot of factors that generally only a Solicitor can answer for you (or even the financial institution you have your mortgage with) but yes usually you will both be joint and severally liable for the mortgage debt and so you must make payments as if the loan goes into arrears you will be affected.

    I advise seeking professional help on this.


This discussion has been closed.
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