Induction question

c0unterpart

can anyone help me with this? i cant really follow the books way.

http://tinypic.com/view.php?pic=k39cae&s=8#.U3nwREO9KSM

robman60

I gave it a try but I'm stumped. I know I've done a similar one previously, but my effort so far has been to no avail. Let me know if you figure it out!

RedSeven7

I'm no expert on induction but I think I've got it:

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1jogxetNvYHZZr18T225c1gib3FUqk9UbvA0axWWA084/edit?usp=sharing


I didn't know how to do the "less than or equal to" sign so lets just pretend that < means less than or equal to :P

Someone correct me if I'm wrong!

thelad95

RedSeven7 wrote: »

I'm no expert on induction but I think I've got it:

https://docs.google.com/document/d/1jogxetNvYHZZr18T225c1gib3FUqk9UbvA0axWWA084/edit?usp=sharing


I didn't know how to do the "less than or equal to" sign so lets just pretend that < means less than or equal to :P

Someone correct me if I'm wrong!

Where did you get (k + 1)k! < (k + 1)(k + 1)^k

I understand the RHS but whats going on with the LHS.

Moody_mona

thelad95 wrote: »

Where did you get (k + 1)k! < (k + 1)(k + 1)^k

I understand the RHS but whats going on with the LHS.

(k+1)! means (k+1)(k)(k-1)(k-2) etc all the way down to 1. And k! is (k)(k-1)(k-2)etc, therefore (k+1)! is the same as (k+1)(k)!

c0unterpart

Moody_mona wrote: »

(k+1)! means (k+1)(k)(k-1)(k-2) etc all the way down to 1. And k! is (k)(k-1)(k-2)etc, therefore (k+1)! is the same as (k+1)(k)!

thank you