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Renting 1st home briefly

  • 30-10-2013 10:02am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,772 ✭✭✭


    If, after moving to a new house, I rent my previous main residence of many years, and decide a year later that being landlord isn't for me, do I have to pay CGT if I sell the property at a profit, rather than being exempt as it was my main residence?

    Or in other words, if I rent out my old main residence, do I immediately forfeit the exemption from CGT of selling my main residence?


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 9,798 ✭✭✭Mr. Incognito


    No you just adjust the exemption for the period it was not your ppr so for example ppr for 19 out of 20 years you pay 1 20 th of the CGT bill


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,678 ✭✭✭nompere


    No you just adjust the exemption for the period it was not your ppr so for example ppr for 19 out of 20 years you pay 1 20 th of the CGT bill

    That's not quite correct.

    You work out the gain, then calculate 1/20th of that gain, then reduce the chargeable gain by the personal allowance, and finally work out the tax.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,772 ✭✭✭bazwaldo


    nompere wrote: »
    That's not quite correct.

    You work out the gain, then calculate 1/20th of that gain, then reduce the chargeable gain by the personal allowance, and finally work out the tax.

    Thanks for the clarification.

    I found an example too in http://www.revenue.ie/en/tax/cgt/leaflets/cgt1.pdf, Chapter 11, example 11, Pg 33.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 59,702 ✭✭✭✭namenotavailablE


    Worth also noting that if the period of non-occupancy renting is 1 year and this occurs in the final 12 months of ownership then you'd be deemed to have occupied it for the entire period of ownership- the last 12 months are deemed to be a period of occupancy even if you are not occupying the house.


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