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Grammar

  • 04-07-2013 6:56pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,023 ✭✭✭


    I just wrote the following: 'I have rented for years, and have no problem with it."

    I always get the impression that gramatically it's incorrect not to put the personal pronoun back in the second clause of a sentence: 'I have rented for years, and I have no problem with it.'

    Technically, should the pronoun be put in there? Thanks.


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,141 ✭✭✭Yakuza


    To me, the second pronoun is a tautology. It is implied that the pronoun of the second verb is the same as that of the first clause.


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