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Basic Fourier Series question

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  • 03-03-2012 11:02pm
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 434 ✭✭


    f(t) = [t]
    (modulus of t)

    -∏<t<∏
    T=2∏
    (period of 2∏)

    What is a0?



    The answer I have here is a0 = ∏

    Is that correct? If so, why is a0 = ∏?

    Thank you.


Comments

  • Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 1,846 Mod ✭✭✭✭Michael Collins


    You're close but not quite there with that answer - it should be

    [latex] \displaystyle a_{0} = \frac{\pi}{2}. [/latex]

    The [latex] a_{0} [/latex] term in a Fourier series is simply the average value of the function over one full period.

    So [latex] f=a_{0} [/latex] is the constant valued function which gives you the same area over one full period as the function in question.


  • Registered Users Posts: 434 ✭✭Smythe


    Are you sure a0/2 doesn't equal pi/2 in this case?

    In the notes I have it says;

    a0/2 = pi/2 is the mean value of the signal


  • Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 1,846 Mod ✭✭✭✭Michael Collins


    Ah OK, yes you are correct. I forgot that some people only half the value of the [latex] a_{0} [/latex] term in the final formula, instead of calculating the actual average/mean term directly. (This is so you can use the [latex] a_{n} [/latex] formula for obtaining the [latex] a_{0} [/latex] term, instead of having to remember a separate formula for [latex] a_{0} [/latex].)


  • Registered Users Posts: 434 ✭✭Smythe


    Okay, no problem.

    Also, I found essentially the same worked problem here;
    http://www.exampleproblems.com/wiki/index.php/FS1

    using an x instead of the t in my question.

    It can be seen on that page what 'an' equals.

    Would you have any idea why my notes state that 'an' equals
    -4/[∏(k^2)]


  • Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 1,846 Mod ✭✭✭✭Michael Collins


    Provided in your notes there's a piece of text saying "for odd k only" or something similar, it actually works out the same whichever formula you use.

    If you look at the [latex] a_{n} [/latex] term in those notes, they have

    [latex] \displaystyle a_{n} = \frac{\left2((-1)^{n}-1)\right)}{\pi n^2}[/latex]

    for all even values of n, this is zero, so we can just rewrite this as

    [latex] \displaystyle \underbrace{a_{n}}_{n{\subscriptsize \hbox{ odd}}} = \frac{2(-2)}{\pi n^2} = \frac{-4}{\pi n^2}. [/latex]

    since for all the odd values, the -1-1 add to give negative -2.

    So it's the same thing at the end of the day.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 434 ✭✭Smythe


    That's great. Thanks very much for that, I actually understand it now!


  • Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 1,846 Mod ✭✭✭✭Michael Collins


    Great. Glad to be of help.


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