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Why no condemnation or advice on polgamy in Mosaic Law?

  • 01-02-2012 2:30pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭


    In terms of morality, so much was revealed with regars to the will of God in the Mosaic Law. So why was the topic of polygamy not broached? Not even a, 'This is the ideal, but if you must...'. Any opinions?


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Sorry. Duplicate thread. IT mishap. Can't delete neither. Mods feel free to delete one or the other.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    The Mosaic law doesn’t condemn polygamy because it accommodates it.

    On the other hand, the prophetic tradition definitely favours monogamy, seeing it as an ideal to be admired, even if it isn’t always lived out in practice. Monogamous marriage is constantly used as a metaphor for the relationship between God and his people, while polygamous marriage gets compared to polytheism or idolatry. Generally polygamy is seen as warranted where it’s necessary in order to ensure progeny, e.g. Abraham marries Hagar because his first wife, Sarah, is barren. But polygamy as an exercise of power or for the sake of pleasure or variety, while not actually forbidden, is generally seen as an indication of decadence.

    The Law reflects this attitude by containing provisions which, while not forbidding polygamy, tend to limit it, or to ameliorate some of its potentially bad effects. So, for example, a man cannot take his own slave as a wife without liberating her (and she remains liberated even if he later divorces her). A man with children by more than one wife cannot, when it comes to inheritance, prefer the children of the more favoured wife. The king is not to “multiply wives”. The high priest is to take only one wife. And so on.

    Building on this rather negative attitude to polygamy, the scholarly and later rabbinical tradition discouraged it more and more strongly. By the time of Jesus polygamy, while technically permitted, was almost unheard of among the Jews. Still later, a practice grew up of stipulating, in the standard Jewish marriage contract, that the groom would not take a second wife while the first wife lived and, since these contracts were binding, this did effectively make polygamy illegal.

    It should be pointed out that the NT also contains no prohibition on polygamy (except, arguably, for bishops). I think Martin Luther conceded (reluctantly) that if a Christian man proposed to take a second wife there was no scriptural prohibition on his doing so.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,267 ✭✭✭gimmebroadband


    It would appear that God willed that man should have ONE wife.

    Douay-Rheims Bible
    For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother; and shall cleave to his wife.

    ...not wives!

    Douay-Rheims Bible
    Wherefore a man shall leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they shall be two in one flesh.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Thanks for the replies guys. Peregrinus, thats a great explaination in relation to Gods relationship with Israel. Just to be clear, I do see that the bible indicates the preference of only one wife, I'm just curious to know why God never explicitly stated his objection to polgamy in Torah or NT.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,998 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Because God didn't write the Torah or the NT; humans did. They did discern a definte preference for monogamy over polygamy, but the discernment that God wanted just monogamy, and not polygamy under any cirucmstances, came after the scriptural texts had been written.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Because God didn't write the Torah or the NT; humans did. They did discern a definte preference for monogamy over polygamy, but the discernment that God wanted just monogamy, and not polygamy under any cirucmstances, came after the scriptural texts had been written.

    Now theres a good discussion right there. Its something I've thought about too. 'Mosaic' law. Is it from God?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,042 ✭✭✭himnextdoor


    JimiTime wrote: »
    In terms of morality, so much was revealed with regars to the will of God in the Mosaic Law. So why was the topic of polygamy not broached? Not even a, 'This is the ideal, but if you must...'. Any opinions?

    Because, 'It's a man's world'.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    I don't think Genesis presents a flattering picture of polygamy anyway. If you look to the situation that Laban put Jacob in in Genesis 29 - 30 for example. Would you say that sounds like a harmonious family relationship?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,980 ✭✭✭wolfsbane


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Because God didn't write the Torah or the NT; humans did. They did discern a definte preference for monogamy over polygamy, but the discernment that God wanted just monogamy, and not polygamy under any cirucmstances, came after the scriptural texts had been written.
    Wrong. Very wrong! You have just denied that the Scriptures are the word of God.

    All scripture is God-breathed, the work of the Holy Spirit, not man's invention. That is historic position of both the Roman Catholic and Protestant religions.

    Psalm 119:160 The entirety of Your word is truth,
    And every one of Your righteous judgments endures forever.

    John 17:17 Sanctify them by Your truth. Your word is truth.

    2 Peter 1:20 knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation, 21 for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.


    *******************************************************************
    2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,980 ✭✭✭wolfsbane


    JimiTime wrote: »
    In terms of morality, so much was revealed with regars to the will of God in the Mosaic Law. So why was the topic of polygamy not broached? Not even a, 'This is the ideal, but if you must...'. Any opinions?
    Like with divorce, it seems God was leading hard-hearted man on to the full revelation of His will:
    Matthew 19:7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”
    8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”


    Slavery comes into that category too. The two great commandments - supreme love to God, and loving your neighbour as yourself - were given, but the full implications of them were not made compulsory in that age.

    ********************************************************************
    Romans 13:8 Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not bear false witness,” “You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.



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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 4,255 ✭✭✭tommy2bad


    Wrong. Very wrong! You have just denied that the Scriptures are the word of God.
    but the full implications of them were not made compulsory in that age.

    First point; what exactly dose 'the word of God' mean?
    Second point; Where dose it say anything like that in the scripture. Is their a More to be revealed type coda somewhere in their?

    As to polygamy, I've said it before God requires love, sex isn't His obsession, it's ours.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,080 ✭✭✭lmaopml


    tommy2bad wrote: »
    First point; what exactly dose 'the word of God' mean?
    Second point; Where dose it say anything like that in the scripture. Is their a More to be revealed type coda somewhere in their?

    As to polygamy, I've said it before God requires love, sex isn't His obsession, it's ours.

    Scripture that makes up the Canon is God breathed in other words it was not given to us by man but received by man through God.

    The Old Testament was written by people in a time and place who interpreted same and wrote according to the times they were in, their political human circumstances etc. but there is a deep truth therein, one only has to read it and understand the times too to see it's beauty and totally outlandish difference to anything regarded as good by the world - it fought the world.

    - I think what Peregrinus meant is that the people who wrote were not given the full revelation, but led by the Spirit and the word of God, they wrote, but didn't write scientific journals, just according to what could be understood etc.. Certainly all Christians will agree that those who wrote Scripture had something to say about God's nature and also the path, it was not meant to be thorny or difficult to the discerning, but it was never something trust apon anybody either, it just endures. Very simply. It's about faith and seeing properly. There is a vast amount of wisdom that still endures by reading Scripture, the Old Testament is full up with wisdom too.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 4,255 ✭✭✭tommy2bad


    Scripture that makes up the Canon is God breathed in other words it was not given to us by man but received by man through God.
    Or it was made up as they went along, or its the record of a relationship with God, or its exactly what God said not a word added or taken away. I've read it and I think it the middle one but you pays your money and takes your choice.
    just according to what could be understood etc..
    Ah well that explains how theirs nothing about space travel but doesn't explain why 'one wife at a time' isn't their. Doesn't cover slavery either, I mean how hard to say No to slavery. The time line excuse is so Mormon ......


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 5,980 ✭✭✭wolfsbane


    tommy2bad said:
    First point; what exactly dose 'the word of God' mean?
    It means the words God sent to mankind - His words, delivered to men inspired by His Spirit to record them for us. Not words which some men thought He might say to us if given the chance.
    Second point; Where dose it say anything like that in the scripture. Is their a More to be revealed type coda somewhere in their?
    Yes:
    Matthew 19:7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”

    8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”


    John 1:17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

    John 16:12 “I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13 However, when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth; for He will not speak on His own authority, but whatever He hears He will speak; and He will tell you things to come.

    Hebrews 1:1 God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;

    Hebrews 2:2 Therefore we must give the more earnest heed to the things we have heard, lest we drift away. 2 For if the word spoken through angels proved steadfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just reward, 3 how shall we escape if we neglect so great a salvation, which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed to us by those who heard Him,
    As to polygamy, I've said it before God requires love, sex isn't His obsession, it's ours.
    The saying is wrong. God tells us monogamy is the only proper marriage, and the only proper sexual relationship:
    Hebrews 13:4 Marriage is honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge.

    *******************************************************************
    Romans 13:8 Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not bear false witness,” “You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 4,255 ✭✭✭tommy2bad


    wolfsbane wrote: »
    tommy2bad said:

    It means the words God sent to mankind - His words, delivered to men inspired by His Spirit to record them for us. Not words which some men thought He might say to us if given the chance.
    So you paid your money and made your choice

    Yes:
    Matthew 19:7 They said to Him, “Why then did Moses command to give a certificate of divorce, and to put her away?”

    8 He said to them, “Moses, because of the hardness of your hearts, permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. 9 And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”

    So it was wrong but God let them do it without penalty. Then decided that it should carry a penalty?
    John 1:17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

    John 16:12 “I still have many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13 However, when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth; for He will not speak on His own authority, but whatever He hears He will speak; and He will tell you things to come.
    Referencing prophecy? or more clarification?

    Hebrews 1:1 God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;
    Wrong about that anyway
    Hebrews 2:2 Therefore we must give the more earnest heed to the things we have heard, lest we drift away. 2 For if the word spoken through angels proved steadfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just reward, 3 how shall we escape if we neglect so great a salvation, which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed to us by those who heard Him,


    The saying is wrong. God tells us monogamy is the only proper marriage, and the only proper sexual relationship:
    Hebrews 13:4 Marriage is honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge.
    By then monogamy was the ideal, things change

    *******************************************************************
    The saying is wrong.
    Then you post this, how am I wrong?
    Romans 13:8 Owe no one anything except to love one another, for he who loves another has fulfilled the law. 9 For the commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not bear false witness,” “You shall not covet,” and if there is any other commandment, are all summed up in this saying, namely, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor; therefore love is the fulfillment of the law.

    Sorry but I think your wrong, of course we could both be wrong.
    This comes down to reading scripture one way or the other and I don't see scripture as prescriptive.


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