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Am I missing something?
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25-01-2012 11:31PM#1Was in Ladbrokes today and saw the following bets
Barcelona & Real Madrid both to score 4/7
&
Barca & Madrid both not to score 5/4.
Boyles were 16/1 0-0.
Why would someone back the 5/4 with Lads if you could get 0-0 at 16's with Boyles?
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Comments
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whatsupdoc? wrote: »Was in Ladbrokes today and saw the following bets
Barcelona & Real Madrid both to score 4/7
&
Barca & Madrid both not to score 5/4.
Boyles were 16/1 0-0.
Why would someone back the 5/4 with Lads if you could get 0-0 at 16's with Boyles?
It's in the negative wording - say it ended 0-0, 1-0, 2-0, 3-0, etc - both not to score at 5/4 would have been a winning bet.0 -
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