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Am I missing something?

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  • 25-01-2012 11:31pm
    #1
    whatsupdoc?
    Registered Users Posts: 706 ✭✭✭


    Was in Ladbrokes today and saw the following bets
    Barcelona & Real Madrid both to score 4/7
    &
    Barca & Madrid both not to score 5/4.

    Boyles were 16/1 0-0.

    Why would someone back the 5/4 with Lads if you could get 0-0 at 16's with Boyles? :confused:


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    #2
    Plus 10
    Registered Users Posts: 137 ✭✭Plus 10


    whatsupdoc? wrote: »
    Was in Ladbrokes today and saw the following bets
    Barcelona & Real Madrid both to score 4/7
    &
    Barca & Madrid both not to score 5/4.

    Boyles were 16/1 0-0.

    Why would someone back the 5/4 with Lads if you could get 0-0 at 16's with Boyles? :confused:

    It's in the negative wording - say it ended 0-0, 1-0, 2-0, 3-0, etc - both not to score at 5/4 would have been a winning bet.


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    #3
    UrbanSea
    Closed Accounts Posts: 18,335 ✭✭✭✭UrbanSea


    A confusing one alright. Basically if one or both teams failed to score in the second you'd win


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