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Title Deeds

  • 13-01-2012 7:13pm
    #1
    ian1989
    Closed Accounts Posts: 1 ✭


    Just wondering if anyone has come across this happening to someone.

    Person A buys the property in the 1980's for what I presume was cash. It was all done throught their soliciter and they lived there until their death when A bequeathed house to a family member B in their will in 2010. So far so good.

    When B decides to sell the property to pay the inheritance tax, they are told the property deeds were never signed over when A bought the property.

    The deeds have now been signed by the previous owner but they will not furnish their pps no. to complete matters.

    A was an elderly person when they bought the property and probably thought that their soliciter had dealt with all of this. Just wondering how this was allowed to happen.

    Thanks.


Comments

  • #2
    coylemj
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 25,620 ✭✭✭✭coylemj


    It was 'allowed to happen' because A obviously wasn't buying the property with a mortgage so there was no bank or building society waiting for the completed paperwork.


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