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AutoKadett · 2011-09-08 10:34:42

Hi there, A friend of mine owns a house which she bought on her own around 15 years ago, after separating from her husband. The splitting of the old house and items was done legally and finalised 15 years ago so everything she owns now is hers. There is also children involved although they are all over 18. Recently the…

08-09-2011 10:34AM

#1

AutoKadett

Closed Accounts Posts: 8 ✭

Join Date: April 2010

Posts: 7

Hi there,

A friend of mine owns a house which she bought on her own around 15 years ago, after separating from her husband. The splitting of the old house and items was done legally and finalised 15 years ago so everything she owns now is hers. There is also children involved although they are all over 18.

Recently the husband lost the place where he was living for years and on request of one of the children the husband moved back in with my friend, into a house he had never lived in before and has no financial stake in, and this arrangement was meant to be for 2 weeks. This was about 4 months ago but he is still there. She is the kind of person that cares too much about other people to stand up for herself and make happen what she wants, she'll always back down for the sake of others. So people tend to walk all over her, her children being who I'm talking about here. They just fob her off and so does the husband too and she backs down.

Anyway, she is afraid that if he stays there any longer that he will be entitled to part of the house. I told her I don't think so but that I'll try find out for her. Can anyone let me know how long the person has to be living/staying in the house to be entitled to some of the house?

Cheers

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