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gazumping

  • 10-05-2011 9:51pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 154 ✭✭


    question for conveyance people

    where co-owners are concerned - if a contract is signed and exchanged but signed by only one vendor would it be enforceable ? assume all other aspects (eg deposit etc ) are met


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,529 ✭✭✭234


    It's not really a conveyancing issue as such. If the land is registered then there is no change of ownership until the transfer is executed. However a contract for sale may give you equitable ownership and there is the possibility of specific performance to enforcet the contract. In short, I'm not really answering your question.
    Edit: you should just ask your solicitor; you really should have a solicitor for conveyancing. Out of curiosity, are you going for a joint tenancy or a tenancy in common?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,062 ✭✭✭dermot_sheehan


    one co-owner could have signed as agent for another

    signature for the purposes of the statute of frauds is construed widely.

    its fact specific and i dont think advice on the internet is useful given the value of what is at stake.


  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 987 ✭✭✭Kosseegan


    If the co-owners are tenants in common one co-owner can only sell his own interest. Since the 2009 Act the permission of the other co-owner(s) is needed.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,529 ✭✭✭234


    The 2009 Act ony requires the consent of the other co-owner in the case of joint tenancies. S30 prevents unilateral severenve.


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