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Exponential Function

  • 05-05-2011 2:08pm
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 834 ✭✭✭


    Anyone have any ideas on this? I've been studying compounding interest and came across the problem;

    Sketch a proof of the fact that;

    [latex]\lim_{n\to \infty} (1+\frac{x}{n})^n = e^x [/latex]


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    This is a standard result in finance theory, which forms the basis of what is often referred to as "continuous compounding".

    There's an explanation and sketch of a proof here.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,481 ✭✭✭Fremen


    when x=1, that's actually the definition of e.

    Just take the log of both sides, then taylor expand the log function. The limit commutes with the log because log is continuous.

    I think I missed this question on my finals. In retrospect, it's not hard.


  • Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 1,852 Mod ✭✭✭✭Michael Collins


    Or take the natural log of both sides then use L'Hôpital's rule.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 834 ✭✭✭Reillyman


    hivizman wrote: »
    This is a standard result in finance theory, which forms the basis of what is often referred to as "continuous compounding".

    There's an explanation and sketch of a proof here.

    Yeah I know that's the subject I'm studying just going over it all again for exams.

    Thanks alot mate.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 834 ✭✭✭Reillyman


    Here's what I have;

    I expanded [latex](1+\frac{x}{n})^n[/latex]

    applied the limit to all terms in the sequence and am left with;

    [latex]\frac{1}{0!} + \frac{x}{1!} + \frac{x}{2!} + \frac{x}{3!} ....)[/latex]

    Then I took out [latex]x[/latex] and am left with;

    [latex] 1 + x(\frac{1}{1!} + \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{1}{3!} ....)[/latex]

    I know as n approaches infinity this equals;

    [latex] 1 + x(e^x -1) [/latex]

    Any ideas?

    This could be really simple to solve or maybe I made a mistake but I'm drawing a blank!


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,163 ✭✭✭hivizman


    Reillyman wrote: »
    Here's what I have;

    I expanded [latex](1+\frac{x}{n})^n[/latex]

    applied the limit to all terms in the sequence and am left with;

    [latex]\frac{1}{0!} + \frac{x}{1!} + \frac{x}{2!} + \frac{x}{3!} ....)[/latex]

    Note that [latex](1+\frac{x}{2})^2[/latex] when expanded gives:

    [latex]1+2\frac{x}{2}+\frac{x^2}{4}[/latex]

    More generally, [latex](1+\frac{x}{n})^n[/latex] expands to:

    [latex]1+n\frac{x}{n}+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\frac{x^2}{n^2}+...+\frac{x^n}{n^n}[/latex]


    It looks like you have omitted the exponents for the various powers of x. You should have got:

    [latex]\frac{1}{0!} + \frac{x^1}{1!} + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!}+ ....[/latex]


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 834 ✭✭✭Reillyman


    hivizman wrote: »
    Note that [latex](1+\frac{x}{2})^2[/latex] when expanded gives:

    [latex]1+2\frac{x}{2}+\frac{x^2}{4}[/latex]

    More generally, [latex](1+\frac{x}{n})^n[/latex] expands to:

    [latex]1+n\frac{x}{n}+\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\frac{x^2}{n^2}+...+\frac{x^n}{n^n}[/latex]


    It looks like you have omitted the exponents for the various powers of x. You should have got:

    [latex]\frac{1}{0!} + \frac{x^1}{1!} + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!}+ ....[/latex]

    Yeah **** your right! Thanks


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