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Criminal Damage Question

  • 27-03-2011 11:41am
    #1
    paky
    Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,138 ✭✭✭


    If A breaks Bs house windows and gets caugt by the gards and is ordered by the courts to pay for the damage and does so, whats stopping B from claiming off his insurance at the same time even though A has payed and repaired the damage?


Comments

  • #2
    MagicSean
    Closed Accounts Posts: 9,897 ✭✭✭MagicSean


    You have no loss to claim for.


  • #3
    paky
    Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,138 ✭✭✭paky


    How would the insurance company know that the damage was payed for?


  • #4
    annascott
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,271 ✭✭✭annascott


    Wouldn't 'B' be required to show repair receipts to the insurance company before they paid out?
    Out of interest, it doesn't say much for 'A' when he/she only paid for the window repair because they were caught by the garda and ordered by court to pay. Surely if you accidently broke a person's window, you would feel terrible and offer to pay without being prompted? Is this one of those rough council estate war things?


  • #5
    MagicSean
    Closed Accounts Posts: 9,897 ✭✭✭MagicSean


    paky wrote: »
    How would the insurance company know that the damage was payed for?

    You mean how would you hide your fraudulent claim?


  • #6
    paky
    Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,138 ✭✭✭paky


    k_mac wrote: »
    You mean how would you hide your fraudulent claim?

    yes, provided B had abused the system


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