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Reasonable Expectation

  • 20-01-2011 12:13am
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 1,042 ✭✭✭


    If a fee has been paid for a service, can it be argued in principle that a contract has been made?
    Tagged:


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,062 ✭✭✭dermot_sheehan


    Or a quasi contract

    but of course it depends on the facts

    Contracts normally require offer/acceptance/consideration,

    and contracts for land must be made or evidenced in writing.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,042 ✭✭✭himnextdoor


    I applied to a legal authority, the Private Residential Tenancies Board, for help in a claim of illegal eviction that I was making.

    In order to proceed they required me to fill out an application form and to pay a nominal fee. In the literature that they had included with the forms was a document that explained the PRTB's processes and made certain assurances with regard to the integrity of the service they were providing.

    They offered me a service at a price that I paid which seems to satisfy the conditions for making a contract.

    If it can be shown that the service provided was not of the quality of the service promised such as to bring about an injustice, is it reasonable to say that a breach of contract has occured?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,062 ✭✭✭dermot_sheehan


    No you didn't form a contract with the PRTB.

    The PRTB is authorized by law (rules made under the residential tenancies act) to charge a fee before dealing with a reference.

    Same way when you pay stamp duty for court you don't form a contract with the court.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 1,042 ✭✭✭himnextdoor


    gabhain7 wrote: »
    No you didn't form a contract with the PRTB.

    The PRTB is authorized by law (rules made under the residential tenancies act) to charge a fee before dealing with a reference.

    Same way when you pay stamp duty for court you don't form a contract with the court.

    I understand. Thank you.


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