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Quick question on reducing a moment and force to a single force

  • 09-12-2010 12:20am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 65 ✭✭


    The question I'm doing asks me to reduce a moment and force at point a to a single force system. Is this just basically d=M/F so that d is the distance from a that the single force, F is. Where M is the moment.

    So if I have a moment of 640Nm and a force of 60i + 20j N at A,
    would the single force system just be a distance from A so that d=640/F
    We're not given a specific distance though.


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 4,204 ✭✭✭FoxT


    I'm guessing here but think you need to use pythagoras to get the magnitude of the 60i+20j piece. Once you have that, you can work out d.

    Does that make sense?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 603 ✭✭✭eoins23456


    your question isnt important in the slightest sir


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