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Treble Question - One event started

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  • 12-10-2010 9:39am
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 328 ✭✭


    I did a treble on saturday at 13.30pm which consisted of Brighton to win at 3/4 (price from coupon)Charlton to win v plymouth draw no bet at 10/11and France to beat Romania at 4/7It was only when i got home and turned on sky sports that i saw the brighton game was nearly over (they drew 1-1). Didnt realise it started at 12 noon.Charlton drew 2-2, so the draw no bet comes into play, and France beat Romania 2-0.My question is, will the bet be declared a loser because Brighton didnt win, or will that part of the treble be voided because the game was nearly over, and the bet becomes a double??Any advise greatly appreciated.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 5,377 ✭✭✭Warper


    ingo1984 wrote: »
    I did a treble on saturday at 13.30pm which consisted of Brighton to win at 3/4 (price from coupon)Charlton to win v plymouth draw no bet at 10/11and France to beat Romania at 4/7It was only when i got home and turned on sky sports that i saw the brighton game was nearly over (they drew 1-1). Didnt realise it started at 12 noon.Charlton drew 2-2, so the draw no bet comes into play, and France beat Romania 2-0.My question is, will the bet be declared a loser because Brighton didnt win, or will that part of the treble be voided because the game was nearly over, and the bet becomes a double??Any advise greatly appreciated.

    This is a tricky one, the bookie might say it was a BIR price. I dont know, the only way is to go in and try. Its entirely up to the bookie. On the flip side if the bet had won the bookie would be entitled to just pay the double as the event had started. There is no legal entitlement on the bookie so just check it out.


  • Registered Users Posts: 706 ✭✭✭whatsupdoc?


    Should be a double.
    1st event should be declared void.


  • Registered Users Posts: 13,329 ✭✭✭✭8-10


    Should be a double.
    1st event should be declared void.

    This is my view too, since you say the Brighton price was taken off the coupon.


  • Registered Users Posts: 328 ✭✭ingo1984


    i went into the bookies in question yesterday evening. they said that the only reason that the brighton part was voided was because they werent offering betting in running odds on that match, but if they were then the bet would have been a loser.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,618 ✭✭✭✭okidoki987


    betting in running odds on that match, but if they were then the bet would have been a loser

    Interesting
    Wonder what would have happened if the odds were miles different?


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  • Registered Users Posts: 328 ✭✭ingo1984


    i wondered the same myself. on the docket i wrote brighton to win and 3/4 (which was the price on the coupon). i placed the bet at 13.35 at which stage brighton were 1-0 up with about 10 minutes left. they clearly wouldnt be 3/4 at that stage in those circumstances, which you could make a valid arguement for.


  • Registered Users Posts: 12,009 ✭✭✭✭L'prof


    ingo1984 wrote: »
    i placed the bet at 13.35 at which stage brighton were 1-0 up with about 10 minutes left. they clearly wouldnt be 3/4 at that stage in those circumstances, which you could make a valid arguement for.

    True, but what if you took a price on a horse and went to the counter while in the meantime the price had shortened. Say then that your selection won, what would be your expected outcome?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,219 ✭✭✭Goldcupfav


    Brighton match is void. Its only a betting in running bet if stated on the docket. So your bet becomes a double.


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