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Employment Law (redundancy)

  • 29-06-2010 1:36pm
    #1
    Comordha
    Closed Accounts Posts: 562 ✭✭✭


    If somebody has recently been made permenant but for the previous three years had worked for the same company (multinational) on a rolling 1 year contract are the redundancy payments calculated from the original date the person began working or from the date they were made permenant?


Comments

  • #2
    Max Power1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 10,272 ✭✭✭✭Max Power1


    Comordha wrote: »
    If somebody has recently been made permenant but for the previous three years had worked for the same company (multinational) on a rolling 1 year contract are the redundancy payments calculated from the original date the person began working or from the date they were made permenant?
    AFAIK once the time of service is unbroken its from the start date of the first contract.


  • #3
    Hockney
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 176 ✭✭Hockney


    Just going through this myself.

    I started on a 1 year contract, and was made permanent 6 months into it. The redundancy figure they calculated was based on the very first day I joined, which was a pleasant surprise, I had expected it to omit the first 6 months.

    I'm not sure how the law sees it though...


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