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England to win both halves.

  • 25-06-2010 12:21pm
    #1
    lushballs
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 196 ✭✭


    I had 'England to win both halves' at 5/2. They scored in first halve & so won both halves.
    Lady in PP said they had to score in both halves so bet was void. Is this true?

    But .......PP have a bet to score in both halves.
    I'm confused.


Comments

  • #2
    thudd
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 197 ✭✭thudd


    'England to win both halves' basically means that you take each half as a standalone game.

    Half One: England 1 - 0 Slovenia
    Half Two: England 0 - 0 Slovenia


    EDIT: And in relation to the other bet you mention 'To score in Both Halves' this could mean that the team have scored in both halves, but not necessarily won either half. So with the same example again, lets say

    Half One: England 1 - 1 Slovenia
    Half Two: England 1 - 0 Slovenia

    Which would mean that they have scored in both halves and with a final score of 2-1 England.

    Get it?


  • #3
    [Deleted User]
    Posts: 23,339 ✭✭✭✭ [Deleted User]


    lushballs wrote: »
    I had 'England to win both halves' at 5/2. They scored in first halve & so won both halves.
    Lady in PP said they had to score in both halves so bet was void. Is this true?

    Bet wasn't void, 'twas a loser, if 'twas void she should have given you your stake back.
    If you backed England win HT & FT you would have collected, as the poster before me said the second half was a draw.


  • #4
    whatsupdoc?
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 706 ✭✭✭whatsupdoc?


    This is one of the most confusing bets going.

    Win in both halves & H/T, F/T are the 2 most common mixed up bets.
    Win both halves as already said is 2 seperate bets in effect but most people think that it is the same as h/t, f/t.
    Win both halves isn't a popular bet but with an odds on shot it could be attractive.
    Example today Ivory Coast are 4/11 to beat S Korea, ht ft they are 6/5 and to win both halves 2/1.
    Let's say the game has a goal expectancy of say 2.8 goals so IC to win they might only need 1 goal and no reply, same as ht ft but goal must be before ht.
    Howver win both halves must be 1 goal by IC in both halves and then no reply from SK. So in effect IC score 2 of the 2.8 goals expected.
    Prices reflect the chances of it happening.
    4/11 v good chance
    6/5 just better 50/50
    2/1 getting harder.
    IC did all three today but Switzerland around same prices didn't, Spain 1/2 so slightly bigger (think it was 11/8 and 11/4) didn't win both halves but won the other 2.


  • #5
    [Deleted User]
    Posts: 0 ✭ [Deleted User]


    How is it confusing?

    It's as clear as day to me tbh.

    Win both halves means you must win both halves, not win one and draw the other.

    To score in both halves is self explanatory.

    First rule - know what you are betting on !


  • #6
    Devastator
    Closed Accounts Posts: 4,480 ✭✭✭Devastator


    lushballs wrote: »
    I'm confused.
    rarnes1 wrote: »

    First rule - know what you are betting on !


    best betting advice you'll ever get lush!


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