Data

maccy

If an entity were to collect data on its phone calls received, it would be non identifiable data, and would like to use that data in a statistical form to be published to a third party i.e. XX calls received. However the person the data relates to had no knowledge that any data was being collected even for statistical purposes.

My question is, would there be a problem with disclosing the statisitic because the data was collected without the knowledge of the person even though it is being used for statistical purposes only?

FreudianSlippers

You mean if Eircom or someone came out and said x number of calls are made every month to landlines, x to mobiles, etc.?

or do you mean that some 3rd party is gathering data without knowledge or consent of the phone company or the user?

In either case, I think it'd really depend on the method of data collection, consent and the intrusiveness of the method (i.e. how does it impact constitutional rights of the individual in question).
I'm sure there is a large amount of data being collected of a non-sensitive manner regarding your phone use etc. that you have agreed to in terms of use contract or similar.

Victor

I don't think there is a problem.

Many organisations track calls received, often keeping the data for years for various legal purposes, e.g. if they are being sued and want to rely on calls received to support their evidence. Noel Smyth used it to trip up Charles Haughey.

Now, historically, much of this data would be in the form of a telephonist's notebook, linked or not to on-file memos and I imagine more and more of it is computerised, especially in larger organisations.

It would be quite practical for that call data (not including the content) to be anonymised and passed to third parties.

Assuming the data is suitably secured, I don't see there being any data protection problem as the data is only really being used for the purpose it was collected for and the little data that is being passed on has no personal information.