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Quick Question

  • 30-12-2009 2:51am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 50 ✭✭


    Just wondering in the darts is the "to reach the final" market effectively the same as the "winner without taylor" market......assuming that taylor is in the final of course


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 23,961 ✭✭✭✭mailburner


    itsokay wrote: »
    Just wondering in the darts is the "to reach the final" market effectively the same as the "winner without taylor" market......assuming that taylor is in the final of course

    No

    there is a winner without taylor market also tho


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 39,902 ✭✭✭✭Mellor


    mailburner wrote: »
    No

    there is a winner without taylor market also tho

    He didn't ask was it the same market.
    And assuming that taylor makes it to the final, then they are the same. If Taylor gets to the final, the the winner without market will be settled on his opponent. Which is why the players on the lower have are obviously better still.

    The reason that the odds are different is because there is also the off chance that Taylor won't make the final.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 50 ✭✭itsokay


    yeh considering which side of the draw people are in i think theres a nice little profit to be made


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