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Means Test Question ?

  • 13-10-2009 1:56pm
    #1
    BennyBlanko
    Closed Accounts Posts: 179 ✭✭


    Hi,

    Does anoyne know - why does the Dept of Social allow 60% of Means from spouses/partners Insurable employment to be considered in a mean test calculation but NOT in the calculation of the means from a spouses/partners self employment?

    I'm confused as to why this seems to be the case?
    Can anyone clarify?

    Help please.

    Thanks.


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