Germany let England win the 1966 world cup as part of reparations for ww2 .

super_metroid

It was all decided beforehand.

bonkey

How did you come to this conclusion?

CHD

I'd love if this came out to be true, would shut them up.

robtri

CHD wrote: »

I'd love if this came out to be true, would shut them up.

it would be quite something alright....

But as Bonkey says.. how did you arrive at this??

DubTony

robtri wrote: »

it would be quite something alright....

But as Bonkey says.. how did you arrive at this??

The same way anyone with half a brain came to it. The final score says it all.

Yakult

Former FIFA President Joao Havelange has made some quite sensational, and potentially damaging, allegations by claiming that the 1966 and 1974 World Cups were fixed so that England and Germany would win respectively.

The 1966 World Cup held in England has been the centre of a number of conspiracy theories over the years. These include England’s quarter final victory over Argentina when the hosts won 1-0 after the South Americans had seen their captain Antonio Rattin controversially handed a straight red card for arguing with the referee.

It has been claimed that there was a plot for England to win the World Cup, and the referee from this game was German, while the official in Germany’s quarter final win over Uruguay was English. The controversy continued in the final with Geoff Hurst’s famous ‘was it over the line?’ goal.

Joao Havelange, who was FIFA President from 1974 until 1998 is certain to have further fuelled these conspiracy theories by openly stating that the 1966 and ’74 World Cups were fixed.

"In the three matches that the Brazilian national team played in 1966, of the three referees and six linesmen, seven were British and two were Germans," Havelange told Folha de Sao Paulo.

"Brazil went out, Pele ‘exited’ through injury [following some rough defensive play], and England and Germany entered into the final, just as the Englishman Sir Stanley Rous, who was the President of FIFA at the time, had wanted.

"In Germany in 1974 the same thing happened. During the Brazil-Holland match, the referee was German, we lost 2-0 and Germany won the title," said Havelange.

"We were the best in the world, and had the same team that had won the World Cup in 1962 in Chile and 1970 in Mexico, but it was planned for the host countries to win.”

World Cup hosts have been at the centre of many conspiracy claims over the year. In 1978 Argentina needed to beat Copa America holders Peru by four clear goals to reach the final ahead of Brazil. They won 6-0 but their were dark rumours that Peru, who had an Argentine-born goalkeeper, had thrown the game. Meanwhile in 2002, minnows South Korea were at the centre of similar claims as they finished fourth after seeing a host of dubious decisions go their way in the victories over Italy and Spain.

all I could find on it. Same time not too bothered lol







In reguards to the "wooden leg"
to me it just seems like hes leg is just shadowed. Same with the ref's but not to the same extreame. Imo some funny claims made in those picture.

kthxbai

Germany let England win the 1966 world cup as part of reparations for ww2 .

Thousands of soldiers dead. The Blitz. Stuff like that, vs winning a footie match, even one like the World Cup. Pretty **** poor compensation if you ask me. And why 1966??

marco_polo

With regards to the ball shadow he needs a basic lesson in trigonometry. Eh could it be because the ball was in front of his leg as well as to the left?

DenMan

kthxbai wrote: »

Thousands of soldiers dead. The Blitz. Stuff like that, vs winning a footie match, even one like the World Cup. Pretty **** poor compensation if you ask me. And why 1966??

Football's coming home?

stevoslice

there was no shirt numbers on the front...

First they go and start world war two and then they let the bloody english win the world cup?..Those germans have a lot to answer for..

GerardKeating

kthxbai wrote: »

Thousands of soldiers dead. The Blitz. Stuff like that, vs winning a footie match, even one like the World Cup. Pretty **** poor compensation if you ask me. And why 1966??

It was the 900 annivery of the norman invasion england in 1066..?

robtri

robtri wrote: »

it would be quite something alright....

But as Bonkey says.. how did you arrive at this??

DubTony wrote: »

The same way anyone with half a brain came to it. The final score says it all.

I asked a question, personal abuse doesn't come into it.

I asked how did the OP arrive at the conclusion that this happened?

i.e. what where the lines of logic that brought him to this conclusion?
considering he made a wild statement, with no info for anybody to debate or exaime....
Making a single statment is not a debate about CT's which is what this forum is about.

DubTony

robtri wrote: »

I asked a question, personal abuse doesn't come into it.

I asked how did the OP arrive at the conclusion that this happened?

i.e. what where the lines of logic that brought him to this conclusion?
considering he made a wild statement, with no info for anybody to debate or exaime....
Making a single statment is not a debate about CT's which is what this forum is about.

Ah dont be so touchy. You're reading too much into it. If I'd intended to have a go, I'd have answered bonkey directly. Anyone around here with half a brain would know that

bonkey

DubTony infracted for suggesting that people here may have less than half a brain

HowAreYeGettinO

Interesting theory, but...

There were four World Cups between WW2 and 1966 ('50, '54, '58, '62).

West Germany won one of them (1954).

So if Germany 'let' England win the '66 final, that only squares up the WCs won by each country since the war

If the Germans really wanted England to win a WC they wouldn't have beaten them in the penatly shoot-out in 1990 :P

This theory also assumes that West Germany (as they were then) were speaking on behalf of East Germany

robtri

DubTony wrote: »

Ah dont be so touchy. You're reading too much into it. If I'd intended to have a go, I'd have answered bonkey directly. Anyone around here with half a brain would know that

and yet you still fail to address the point in question, what is the circumstances around this, to support any idea that this is a CT?

The_Kew_Tour

Does this mean that England left us beat them in Euro 88 for 800 years then;););););););)