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Contract question!

  • 27-02-2009 10:52am
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 2


    Hey
    One question re contract... If the doctrine of a religious group ascribed that a job be offered to a specific, named person based on a religious interpretation and there is no option for the offeror (who must act on the interpretation) or option of refusal for the offeree (refusal is never mentioned in the interpretation and has never occurred previously), can there be valid offer or acceptance?
    This question has me stumped. :confused:
    Any help truly appreciated!!


Comments

  • Moderators, Social & Fun Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 10,581 Mod ✭✭✭✭Robbo


    Are we considering the employment contract of the Pope here?


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2 Keelin


    Thanks for replying!

    No, not the pope, as he is chosen based on experience, qualifications etc, rather than the aforementioned interpretation of sacred texts. I'm sure he has the right of refusal aswell. This is a theoretical situation (but really important!!!):rolleyes:


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 122 ✭✭Aprilsunshine


    Refusal MUST be an option for the offeree for it to be valid imo. Otherwise it id duress of some sort and not freely given acceptance.


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