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A change of Mind

  • 26-04-2008 12:25pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,245 ✭✭✭✭


    That ambiguous title probably got some people thinking all sorts of things :pac:

    Anyway, I am reading a book at the moment called the Puzzle of God, by Peter Vardy, and he has got me thinking about a few of God's actions and how they suggest that He changes His 'mind'. How do Christians reconcile the below verses to what I assume is the common belief that God is knowledgeable in all things? Why would God change his mind if he knows the answer already?

    "And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart. And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them." Gen 6:5-7 (NIV)

    "And the LORD said, If I find in Sodom fifty righteous within the city, then I will spare all the place for their sakes."
    "And he spake unto him yet again, and said, Peradventure there shall be forty found there. And he said, I will not do it for forty's sake"
    Gen 18


    In the second set of quotes from Gen 18 I could easily consider that God was proving a point to Abraham. 'If you find me 50 people who are righteous I will spare the city. No? 40 then? 30? 20? 10?. OK, we'll do it my way then...'

    However, I am confused about the 1st quote from Gen 6. I guess it is possible to suggest that this was the way it had to be, and also point out that foreknowledge of events in no way removes the emotions relating to the event. Still, it does pose the question: Can the emotions felt by God (take Gen 6:5-7 as an example) be in anyway equated to those felt by us?


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,580 ✭✭✭Splendour


    However, I am confused about the 1st quote from Gen 6. I guess it is possible to suggest that this was the way it had to be, and also point out that foreknowledge of events in no way removes the emotions relating to the event. Still, it does pose the question: Can the emotions felt by God (take Gen 6:5-7 as an example) be in anyway equated to those felt by us?

    I think the answer to this is yes. If God is our father then he must feel the emotions any parent feels for their children. After all, we are made in his likeness.

    To add to your conundrum, a verse that has always puzzled me is Exodus 32:7-14

    7 Then the LORD said to Moses, "Go down, because your people, whom you brought up out of Egypt, have become corrupt. 8 They have been quick to turn away from what I commanded them and have made themselves an idol cast in the shape of a calf. They have bowed down to it and sacrificed to it and have said, 'These are your gods, O Israel, who brought you up out of Egypt.'

    9 "I have seen these people," the LORD said to Moses, "and they are a stiff-necked people. 10 Now leave me alone so that my anger may burn against them and that I may destroy them. Then I will make you into a great nation."

    11 But Moses sought the favor of the LORD his God. "O LORD," he said, "why should your anger burn against your people, whom you brought out of Egypt with great power and a mighty hand? 12 Why should the Egyptians say, 'It was with evil intent that he brought them out, to kill them in the mountains and to wipe them off the face of the earth'? Turn from your fierce anger; relent and do not bring disaster on your people. 13 Remember your servants Abraham, Isaac and Israel, to whom you swore by your own self: 'I will make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and I will give your descendants all this land I promised them, and it will be their inheritance forever.' " 14 Then the LORD relented and did not bring on his people the disaster he had threatened.


    Here it's almost like Moses persuaded God to change his mind...


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Wow. Its amazing the things you don't pick up on when reading. Good topic FC. I'm not in a position of knowledge to answer the conundrum, but what I would say is this.

    words like Omnipotence and Omniscient have given nothing to us as far as God is concerned. Everything we 'think' we know, should be subject to intensive scrutiny, and I mean 'everything (relating to God that is). I often think about why people demand we call the bible 'the word of God'. I always think that a) That title is reserved for Christ. and b)Why is it it needs to be so reveered? I personally don't call it that anymore as its too deceptive IMO. I'd love to see the more educated of the Christian posters give us a take on the OP. PDN, Soul Winner, Wolfsbane, where r u:)


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 25,848 ✭✭✭✭Zombrex


    JimiTime wrote:
    Good topic FC

    Oh yeah, but when we ask that question ... :pac::D

    I would suggest that Fanny you make this one of the Christian only threads, as I suspect you will have a large number of annoying atheist posters, just like myself, hi-jack this thread with "Doesn't that mean he doesn't exist" type posts, which I imagine isn't what you are going for.

    It might also be interesting to see where you guys go with this when left to discuss it yourselves. .


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