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  • 15-04-2008 3:33pm
    #1
    OnFire
    Closed Accounts Posts: 40 ✭


    Can anyone help me. If someone has 6/36 binocularly then is it possible that they have 6/12 monocularly?? Is this impossible. I applied for a job that asks that you have 6/36 binocular vision without visual aids but also asked that if visual aids are used you must have 6/12 or better in the best eye!!!! Not sure if this is with or without visual aids!!! Am I being stupid? Can anyone make sense of this for me!!!!


Comments

  • #2
    The_Minister
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,255 ✭✭✭✭The_Minister


    I've split this into a seperate thread.


  • #3
    Daisies
    Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators Posts: 4,644 Mod ✭✭✭✭Daisies


    Generally speaking people will have better vision binocularly than monocularly.
    Visual aids(these prob include glasses) will make your vision better so I would say that the 6/12 is when your vision is corrected ie with visual aids


  • #4
    OnFire
    Closed Accounts Posts: 40 ✭OnFire


    Thanks thats a great help! One more thing if they ask for 6/6 binocular vision aided or unaided then say if visual aids are used must have at least 6/12 in best eye do you think this 6/12 is again referring to when wearing glasses??? Not very well explained on application form! It jsut doesnt make sense to me why if you had 6/6 binocular then wodnt one of ur eyes need to be 6/6???!!!


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