How do I get all his chips

careca

$50 HU Game last night. NL HE.

1st level blinds 10/20.

Can't remember which blind I was but I was dealt A5o. He raises to 40 (min raise....mmmm) and I call.

Flop 347 no flush draw. He bets 100, I call.

Turn 6 no possible flush. He bets 200.

Whats my play here in order to get all his chips in. We started with 1500 and have roughly that each.

Mr Magnolia

I like re-raising less than his original raise, it normally winds them up, and they come back over the top again, then just keep doing the same until they either "call" or go "all in"

hope you understand me!

The Troll

I'd min raise his turn bet and push on the river if he leads out. Otherwise, maybe a bet of 200/400 to price him into seeing your cards, with the hope he's gonna check raise you all-in.

padser

Sparks400 wrote:

I like re-raising less than his original raise,!

The min re raise in NL HE is his original raise again (eg if he bet 100 you must re raise to 200)

Yeah id like to re raise to either 500 or 600. He cant really fold it given that its 300/400 more to him for a pot worth 900/1000. He may be on a draw though and will fold the river to any bet. It isnt always possible to 'get all his chips'. He may not be willing to commit.

Norwich Fan Rob

with one to a str8, u wont get all his chips, unless hes awful, or has trips and fills up on the river, id dwell, and call on the turn, then min re raise the river if the board doesnt pair, thats as much as u will get (he may even try and represent the str8 on the river with a large bet if he has missed a draw)



www.norwichfan.blogspot.com

careca

I did what most of ye said and raised it up just a bit (320 - i think). He came straight back over the top - all in. I called like a flash. unfortunately, and I think most of ye would have fallen for it, he showed 58 for the nut straight. I fell into the old trap of thinking he must have an overpair because of the min raise. I thought he played it very well.

gg and all that.

The Troll

careca wrote:

I did what most of ye said and raised it up just a bit (320 - i think). He came straight back over the top - all in. I called like a flash. unfortunately, and I think most of ye would have fallen for it, he showed 58 for the nut straight. I fell into the old trap of thinking he must have an overpair because of the min raise. I thought he played it very well.

gg and all that.

Well i had thought this but you asked how to get all his chips as if you had the best hand and he folded it.

careca

The Troll wrote:

Well i had thought this but you asked how to get all his chips as if you had the best hand and he folded it.

Fair enough, but the only reason I phrased it like that, was because that exact thought went through my mind when the 5 appeared on the turn.

Marq

Norwich Fan Rob wrote:

With one to a straight, you won't get all of his chips unless he's awful, or has trips and fills up on the river. I'd dwell, call on the turn, and then min raise the river if the board didn't pair. That's as much as you will get. He may even try to represent the straight on the river with a large bet if he has missed a draw.

Your problem here is that there are four cards to a straight on board, and you don't have the nuts. You have a very obvious non-nut hand. I don't think you're getting away from this hand, and you are unlucky to run into the nuts, but I think that if you get all of his money in here you are usually either splitting the pot or behind. Most good players would drop an overpair by the river if you show enough aggression to get their money in here.

p.s. I don't agree with the quoted post, I just wanted to see what it looked like with punctuation, grammar and spelling. Obviously if the villian fills a boat on the river you are highly unlikely to get all of his money - what with him having a hand that is better than yours.