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The best proof in the world for the Pythagoras theorem

  • 19-10-2012 1:36pm
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 49


    [latex]cos^2\theta+sin^2\theta
    = (cos\theta+isin\theta)(cos\theta-isin\theta)
    = e^{i\theta}.e^{-i\theta}=1
    [/latex]

    Right?


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 15 Reek_The_Meek


    Pythagoras' Theorem states that a^2+b^2=c^2 where c is the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle and a and b are the other two sides.

    What you have there is a generalised version.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 49 Snotzenfartz


    wat?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 15 Reek_The_Meek


    This is Pythagoras' Theorem: http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PythagoreanTheorem.html

    If you were to take the unit circle (i.e. the radius = 1) and let the radius be your hypotenuse, the opposite and adjacent sides are (sinx)^2 and (cosx)^2.
    That hasn't been explained very well so here's a picture: https://wiki.eee.uci.edu/images/6/6e/Triangle_on_unit_circle.jpg


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 103 ✭✭Jan Hus


    Sin and cos are based on the ratios present in a right angled triangle, which must be proven using Pythagoras's theorem. That is like me performing this proof. a^2=b^2+c^2-2abcosA. cos90=0 therefore a^2=b^2+c^2. The exception would exist when you can prove something independently and then using that to prove whatever. The major example would be using Stoke's Theorem to prove the fundamental theory of calculus.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 17 Pole Monkey


    It's possible to derive Euler's formula without using the Pythagoras theorem.


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 103 ✭✭Jan Hus


    It's possible to derive Euler's formula without using the Pythagoras theorem.
    To the best of my knowledge it is not. I am aware that you can use the equation of a circle to derive it, but that itself is based on Pythagoras.
    If your proof differs from this, explain how. ( If you are using inner space products be aware that the dot product is not independent either, though this may not apply for all inner products)


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 17 Pole Monkey


    Sure it's possible. You can derive it from the sine addition formula,

    [latex]sin(a + b) = sinacosb + cosasinb[/latex]

    You don't need the pythagoras theorem to derive that.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 103 ✭✭Jan Hus


    Sure it's possible. You can derive it from the sine addition formula,

    [latex]sin(a + b) = sinacosb + cosasinb[/latex]

    You don't need the pythagoras theorem to derive that.
    But both sin and cos (and of course the relationship between them) comes from the ratios of angles in a right angled triangle... at least that is my understanding.


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