Hi all; question on Article 41.2.2°. I wondered whether to ask this over on the Referendum on Gender Equality forum, but this question of mine is to do with the current law as it stands. Forget for a moment that the text of the subsection is arguably misogynist, old-fashioned or whatever, and that it will be deleted if we vote Yes to the 40th Amendment to the Constitution ("the Care Amendment"). First, this:
Article 41.2.2° “The State shall [...] endeavour to ensure that mothers shall not be obliged by economic necessity to engage in labour to the neglect of their duties in the home.”
So here's my question. I read ("reed") from that that the State shall endeavour to allow, say, single mothers, or mothers in marriages where, say, the father is unable to work for whatever reason, to remain at home to fulfil "their duties in the home" without having to get a job. But why do we not see this in practice? Has any mother ever found herself in the situation where she has had to go out and earn a living despite this constitutional protection? Or better still, has any mother been protected by the constitution in this way and been taken care of by the State? Why have we never heard of any cases winding up before the Supreme Court where a mother was "obliged by economic necessity" and had to go to work?