sheff the ref wrote: » Certainly, 0% finance in any mans language represents a significant saving on the cost of a car. The repayments cost of on €14,000 over three years would come to almost €1000 at 4.5%
FGR wrote: » I'm sure it's been mentioned already but riddle me this. Say you get a guaranteed future value which is extremely conservative (say €1000) when it turns out that your car, at pay up time, is really worth about €2000. Does that mean you have to pay a higher lump sum to keep the car or do you pay back a higher lump sum?
jlm29 wrote: » Does anybody know what mileage limits Hyundai have on their PCP? The brochures I can find online for the i40 mention the unlimited mileage warranty, but nothing about the limits applied to pcp... I presume they're similar enough to others, at approx 100k/yr?
mickdw wrote: » 100k per year. Are you joking?
Kenny Logins wrote: » I don't think you'd be haggling with the dealers on a rate, only price. Rate is set by the finance co. Increasing your deposit will reduce the total interest.
Deleted User wrote: » You can also flog the car if you think mileage is going to be a problem, say if after 2.5 years you thought you were going to have 15K over the limit you can upgrade to a new car and pay towards that rather than paying say 1500-2K towards excess mileage. Or as micks_address said above, if you intend keeping it, it doesn't matter.
Limerick man wrote: » Even if you trade it in after the 3 years and you have over 60kms on it, as long as the trade in is greater than the GFV you're not going to lose money. They're very conservative, usually never over 40% of RRP. Look at any car 3 years old with 120,000kms on it and it's not going to be less than 40%.
Limerick man wrote: » That's only if you want to hand it back and walk away. If your GFV is €10,000 euro with 60,000kms well then after three years if you want to hand the car back to the bank and walk away you can do so once the car is in good condition and road legal. If your GFV is €10,000 and you have 70,000kms on it, with 8 cent per km excess and you want to hand the car back and walk away you will owe the bank €800 to do so (10,000x.08). If your GFV is €10,000 and you have 120,000kms on it, but you can get €14,000 euro on a trade in, then the GFV and mileage limit is irrelevant and the €10,000 euro becomes an outstanding amount like any other loan. So you know have €4,000 equity in the vehicle. (€14,000 trade in less €10,000 GFV). If your GFV is €10,000 and you have 200,000kms on the car and you want to keep it, then you just write a cheque to the financial institution for €10,000 and you keep the car. If your GFV is €10,000 and you have 200,000kms on the car and you get a trade in value of €8000, well then you're just €2,000 in negative equity which you can just pass on to the next loan. The SIMPLE rule is the "Bank" do not want the car back. They want you to either pay it off/refinance it and keep it or trade it in and go again. Pretty much 100% of people do either of the latter two.
Deleted User wrote: » So If my GFV is calculated as being 11,500 in 3 years with 75,000 Kms and I have 120,000 Kms could the garage turn around and say "that's 3,600 Euro's you owe us" ? Sure I get it that the garage could say, I'll give you 13,000 Trade in, but how likely are they to do this ? I remember BMW saying they would charge for every single Km over on the I3 leading me to believe that I'd have a bill at the end or they would deduct this from the GFV ? I know if I keep the car then the mileage doesn't matter but for instance if I wanted to buy the car and had more miles does this come out of the GFV meaning I would have less balloon to pay at the end ?
sunnysoutheast wrote: » No the balloon payment is fixed at the start of the agreement. The easiest way to think of it is that a proportion of the loan you use to buy the car is on interest-only terms until the end of the agreement. You can then settle the outstanding amount by handing the car back (where the excess mileage charges may apply) or by paying the balloon amount via cash, loan or trade-in(where the excess mileage charges are irrelevant). With the first option any equity in the vehicle above the MFV is lost, with the latter it is yours. Some years ago I took out a 3 year PCP on a Golf as the monthly payments were good but it had a low mileage limit of 10k miles. After 2 1/2 years it was at >70k and I traded it for a Passat. I simply paid the early settlement amount to the finance company and that was it.
sunnysoutheast wrote: » I thought with these new-fangled electric vehicles that there wasn't an option to buy the car as they wanted them back to scrap them, not sure though. A friend of ours is looking at an i3 so I'll ask him!
[Deleted User] wrote: » Right, lets see if I got this. 1 GFV matters if you want to buy the car at the end of the contract ? This is your balloon ? 2 The GFV is equity in the car if any going forward to a new contract ? 3 Excess mileage will be charged if you hand the car back ? 3 Excess mileage will be deducted from the GFV if going forward to a new PCP contract ? I'm not really sure how the excess mileage works now, if I go to a new PCP in 2.5-3 years and have 50,000 Kms over, that devalues the car and someone's got to pay, me ? @ 0.8 C per Km that would amount to 4 K ?
Limerick man wrote: » To keep your payments the same in year four on the new vehicle the trick is to not put in as much of a deposit day one. If you put in 8 grand as a deposit now, chances are you're not going to have 8 grand equity the second time round so naturally your monthly payment in going to increase. I think PCP is a brilliant idea for anyone who changes their car on a 3 year cycle.
wandatowell wrote: » Quick question, if you have the cash can you pay the balloon payment with the deposit at the start of the finance agreement?