Harika wrote: » That's exactly why I ask for a source for your claim as it looks made up. (What I assume and you know)
Festus wrote: » Today there is an untold wealth of PhD scientists who believe in God able and willing to share their evidence.
Harika wrote: » This one
Festus wrote: » Feel free to verify it using whatever method works best for you. It might help if you use the term apologetics in your search. It will help narrow down the responses.
Harika wrote: » When I think back how fast the science20 article was shown, I highly assume that if such a list existed someone would be strutting around already like a rooster and showing it.
Festus wrote: » Why? This is science and who is really interested?
Safehands wrote: » I think you are prone to misquoting people, and probably facts, when it suits you.
Festus wrote: » Can you not simple tell me which words you would put into a search engine?
nozzferrahhtoo wrote: » As I said too many to mention. Not clear why it is important. You said there are phd scientists offering evidence for a god. Can you follow this up and tell us who and where?
Festus wrote: » maybe I've been hanging around with atheists for too long.
Safehands wrote: » No he can't Nozz. I think you know that.
Deleted User wrote: » Festus, can I draw your attention to this post when you have the time to answer it please?http://www.boards.ie/vbulletin/showpost.php?p=93200715&postcount=8640 I'm not following your train of thought.
Deleted User wrote: » Can you explain how a belief about the existence of something held by a person has any relevance to the "lack of evidence for the non-existence" of that thing? As an example, Irish folklore details a belief in the Púca. We have a "lack of evidence for the non-existence" of the Púca. However we do have believers in the existence of the Púca. However, it reads to me that you're suggesting that the existence of believers in the Púca somehow alters the "lack of evidence for the non-existence" of the Púca. If I'm wrong, can you explain how I've misinterpreted you?
Deleted User wrote: » I'm afraid I'm getting terribly, terribly confused here. Though I can't be sure if it's my fault or yours. (Apologies if it is my own) Are we now at the stage of claiming that a change in number of believers in the Púca has altered the state of the "lack of evidence of the non-existence"? In effect a flip-flop?
Deleted User wrote: » (t1) - Originally, before the Púca was thought of, there were no believers.(t2) - Eventually - though still fadó fadó - there were believers.(t3) - Your present day empirical statement suggests that now there are not sufficient numbers of believers to worry about.(Can we agree on these three states/scenarios/timelines?)
Deleted User wrote: » I'm interpreting your posts as saying that you suggest that this means that the "lack of evidence of non-existence" of the Púca has changed through these scenarios? However I can't see how the number of believers is relevant? I'm asking you to perhaps explain that.
Deleted User wrote: » If you offer the suggestion that a "worthwhile offering" alters the state further, substitute the Leprechaun in place of the Púca in all of our discussion so far and it should fulfill that need.(I'm hesitant bring any other religion into the conversation, but you could equally use a Hindu god as another example if you particularly needed to). I'd really prefer to stay in the realm of folklore so as not to insult anyone though.
Festus wrote: » /It does not/ unless the leprechaun is offering something worthwhile.
Lady Chuckles wrote: » What's worthwhile is individual though, right?
Festus wrote: » I do not recall stating anywhere that the number of believers is significant.
Festus wrote: » not similar. lack of evidence for something no-one believes in is not the same as lack of evidence for something people believe in.
Deleted User wrote: » However, are we able to agree that there's a similar lack of evidence for their non-existence as a lack of evidence for the non-existence of god? If not, what evidence is available in the second case?
Deleted User wrote: » Why not? I think that this idea needs expansion further if you don't mind.
Festus wrote: » I answered that already. Perhaps I can put it another way.... Arguments for the non-existence of something that exists only in the mind of an atheist is not the same as arguing for the non existence of something that does not exist in the mind of an atheist....
Deleted User wrote: » Can you explain how a belief about the existence of something held by a person has any relevance to the "lack of evidence for the non-existence" of that thing? ... However, it reads to me that you're suggesting that the existence of believers .. somehow alters the "lack of evidence for the non-existence" ... If I'm wrong, can you explain how I've misinterpreted you?
Deleted User wrote: » They're but examples, folklore is (in my opinion) possibly a less 'testy' framework to test and resolve these issues in. Can we try to stick to my Púca example and try to find out where my understanding of the debate has broken down?
Deleted User wrote: » Let's suggest that t1 and t2 are correct (perhaps 'agreeable' is a better term than correct?). Can we define t3 as the 'current state of play'? If you could describe your take on the present day beliefs in the Púca instead of my own version above, we can then have 3 clear 'states'.
Deleted User wrote: » Correct, you didn't explicitly state this, but you did say that it affects how we should view the lack of evidence. This is what I'm concerned about.
Deleted User wrote: » I'm not too concerned about my own significance to be honest. My significance in the debate of the existence of god is irrelevant. The flip flop reference was with regards to the my examples of my guesses of numbers of believers in the Púca, from no believers to many to none again).
Deleted User wrote: » (if quoting this post please feel free to delete from here on - I'm just posting the edited posts to try keep a track of where we are and how we've got to this point) (re:Tooth Fairy)
Deleted User wrote: » Next step (if we've agreed on the above). This quote suggests to me that given that in t1 there was no-one believing in the Púca, in t2 there were people believing in the Púca that we should treat the lack of evidence differently between the two cases/states. I'm not sure why we should, I'm trying to understand why you've suggested it?
Festus wrote: » Who believes in T2 now?
Deleted User wrote: » I'm sorry, what?
Deleted User wrote: » I'm sorry, what? We have a situation where beliefs have changed, yet the "lack of evidence for the non existence" of something has not changed (as no evidence has ever been provided). Is that not fair to say?
Festus wrote: » Did you try that link?
Deleted User wrote: » This is what I'm trying to understand. Thus far, I'm yet to read any reasonable argument about why the above statement is true.
Deleted User wrote: » I've given an example of a folkloric creature which people did not believe in, and then subsequently did believe in. I'm asking you to please explain how their beliefs change/alter/affect the "lack of evidence of the non-existence", which is what the quote above leads me to understand. Again, if I'm misunderstanding you, I'd appreciate if you could explain where my reasoning broke down. If my example of the Púca is confusing things, I can totally generalize the question for you instead.Initial Conditions: Group A believe X is real. Group B believe X is not real. There is no evidence of the non-existence of X. Scenario 1: Group A subsumes Group B in its entirety. There is no evidence of the non-existence of X. Scenario 2: Group B subsumes Group A in it's entirety. There is no evidence of the non-existence of X. Question: Should we treat the 'lack of evidence of the non-existence' of X differently in these scenarios?