heartofwhite wrote: » Howdy everyone - just say a bike is 1000 euro, can you pay part of that cost upfront in cash to the LBS and then do the remainder via the scheme????
fatherted1969 wrote: » Complete newbie here so asking for advice. Living in Kildare town area and am looking for a bike. Began running about 6 months ago and would like to alternate cycling on the odd days as i don't think my knees would hold up to the hard roads. Budget is under 1k just something that will get me 20 or 30km. Doubt I'll ever enter into any races. Has anyone any advice as to best place in Kildare town vicinity. Value and after sales service would be great Cheers
AlmightyCushion wrote: » I can't see it being cut. If everyone who gets it buys a €1000 bike and is on the higher rate then it costs €520 per person. If 1000 avail of it then it is only costing 500k a year. If 10000 avail of it then that's 5 million. The real cost would actually be lower once you take into account the vat frompeople who wouldn't normally have bought a bike.
ROK ON wrote: » In fact the Revenue may do better than suggested in above post. Take for example a person with a budget of 1000 - using BTW that person can buy a bike ip to 1520 if on the higher tax band. The Govt collects VAT on the higher amount not the 1000 in the absence of the btw. In addition the vat from additional purchases of consumables need for cycling and the tax taken from bike retailers who are no busier and more plentiful. It may actually be a net contributor to state coffers. I am collecting my 2nd btw bike today. In both cases I have spent significantly more than the net €480. I know many folks in this situation.
dogsears wrote: » I'd read some other significance into the fact that the net budget of €1,000 was the same as the limit on the employer cost being €1,000.
BoardsMember wrote: » Quick question on this. Company has agreed to buy a bike for me on this scheme. I believe they can do this up to 1k without BIK. So, to be clear, it is not that I will buy the bike over 12 months, they are willing to buy the bike outright up to the value permitted, 1k. The invoice for the bike is 1800 euro. It has no VAT on it, it was bought from a company in Germany and the company supplied the VAT number. So, the question is...how does this work re salary & VAT. Here's what I think, but I am not sure: - Company "sells" bike to me for 1k, this includes 23% VAT - That's €813 of the bike cost, plus VAT @ 23% (€187) - Company owes revenue €187 in next VAT return - Company takes €987 off my next NET salary amount (ouch!!), i.e. the different between 813 & cost price of bike Is the above correct? I presume the company selling the bike to me, the VAT of 187 etc is all fine to record via a memo, rather than me being added as a customer in the accounts system etc Any informed advice welcome
AlmightyCushion wrote: » I think the company would have to pay 23% on the entire 1800, making the price 2214. You would then have to pay 1214/to the company seeing as they are covering the first 1000.
BoardsMember wrote: » I don't understand your suggestion...who would the company have to pay 2214 to? The company has already bought the bike for 1800, and now owns the bike. But you might be right, I just don't know.
AlmightyCushion wrote: » Because the company bought the bike vat free and are now selling it on to you.