marienbad wrote: » would they be classed as forced sexual act by today's standards ?
Brian Shanahan wrote: » But the difference between physics and religion is that under physics nothing existed before time started (ignore nagirrac his physics is prouchy at best), whereas under religion god existed before time started. So you've a big difference there, religion maintaining that a thing (god) existed in a "period" (for want of a better word) where nothing could exist, whereas physics rightly points out that before the big bang there was nothing for anything to exist in. And again we've another example of having to decide between having a universe with god or one with fundamental principles of physics. And again we see which one has evidence and which one is make-believe.
nagirrac wrote: » According to our physical laws the universe cannot come from nothing in a material sense (energy and matter), unless you redefine nothing as some cosmologists have done and argue that the quantum vacuum is nothing. Krauss' book on this subject is a proposal of how the universe went from one state to another, and provides no answer as to where the quantum vacuum came from or where the material that banged into exitance at the time of the big bang came from. There are many possibilities. Our universe could be a subset of a much larger multiverse that has nothing like the laws of our universe, there could be a nearby universe that gave rise to our universe, this could be a recurring universe, a very smart entity in another universe could have programmed our universe. I suppose we could call the latter God compared to us. Mystics do not say or believe that God came from nothing. They say that linear time as we experience it is the incorrect way to think about this question. According to their beliefs, God exists in eternity, which does not mean time that goes on forever, it means there is no time.
philologos wrote: » Nothing in any of the passages you've cited speak of any forced sexual act by any standard. It's just bad reading to assume rape into a passage where it isn't mentioned at all. That's why for years we've claimed that Zombrex is being dishonest when he trots this out.
MrPudding wrote: » We are not reading rape into the passage, per we. We are looking at the reality of the situation. These woman have been forcably taken, whilst we may allow that some of them are ok with that, it must be the case that for at least some of them this taking is against their will. These women are then "married" to the men that took them. From my reading of christian objections to gay marriage I know that sex that can result in pregnancy is, apparently, a key requirement of marriage. We can then, therefore, assume that these soldier will have sex with the woman they have taken. Where they have been taken against their will I think it is reasonable to assume any sex acts carried out on them is also against their will. Therefore, they have been raped. Whilst the fact that it does not specifically mention rape might help you rationalise the fact that your god's behaviour does not tally with what you believe he is, it is quite apparent that you are ignoring the reality of the situation these women were in.They were raped and you god told the rapists that it was ok. MrP
philologos wrote: » That's not in the passage and you're assuming / imagining it in there without warrant. That's why we're dealing with dishonesty rather than an earnest effort to read what it is saying. There's actually not even mention of the marriage even being forced. All we can read from it is that marriage between an Israelite and a captive woman is permissible in Torah law. I suspect unless you're willing to concede that it is not mentioned there that we'll both go away with bloody foreheads. That's our point.
marienbad wrote: » would it be acceptable by today's standard ?
philologos wrote: » I've answered that question already and I've told you I won't be entertaining an interrogation session from you.
MrPudding wrote: » OK, you are accusing me of making assumptions yet you are assuming that a woman that has been captured, or taken against her will, will have consented to marriage and consented to sex just because it does not clarify exactly what happened? MrP
philologos wrote: » I've already answered it. Not getting an answer you like, or an answer that convinces you isn't the same as not getting an answer at all. Read post #6422
Worztron wrote: » Since nobody knows for certain where the universe came from -- it is best to leave a question mark there and not clutch onto adult fairy tales. There is nothing wrong in not knowing the answer to everything but it is madness to believe in things that are not falsifiable in order to fill in the gaps.
philologos wrote: » It doesn't say anything about rape, therefore I don't assume it. It doesn't say anything about the marriage being forced, therefore I don't assume it. Not assuming things without warrant is basic reading comprehension.
philologos wrote: » Considering that rape is clearly condemned elsewhere in the Torah and in the Old Testament is offends logic and comprehension to claim that somehow the Bible advocates rape here when it isn't mentioned. That's the crux of the issue.
marienbad wrote: » Excuse me ! I am not asking you about rape . Yet again I am asking you would this practice be acceptable by todays standards ? and an illustration in case you still don't understand
philologos wrote: » How can rape be condoned if it isn't described or mentioned in these passages? That's the main point and unless you can back it up there is no reason to assume that it is discussing rape or coercion. There's nothing plain there at all.
robp wrote: » ...Referring to 'fairy tales' or as Christians as non-thinking people doesn't reflect very well on someone who trying to take the moral high ground.
nagirrac wrote: » According to our physical laws the universe cannot come from nothing in a material sense (energy and matter), unless you redefine nothing as some cosmologists have done and argue that the quantum vacuum is nothing. Krauss' book on this subject is a proposal of how the universe went from one state to another, and provides no answer as to where the quantum vacuum came from or where the material that banged into exitance at the time of the big bang came from.
MrPudding wrote: » Forced marriage and subsequent rape is the natural consequence of what is described in those passages. Let me ask you a couple of questions that might help us tease things out. 1) Do you think a woman that has been abducted against her will (I appreciate that this is a bit of a tautology but I want to be sure everyone is talking about the same thing) is likely to consent or agree to marrying the person that abducted her? When I say consent, I mean real consent. Not that she agrees to it under duress, that is not consent. 2) Do you think that a woman that has been abducted and married against her will is likely to consent to sex with the person she has been married to against her will? Your book describes a course of action that by any reasonable analysis will end in rape. It really is that simple.
MrPudding wrote: » 1) Do you think a woman that has been abducted against her will . . . is likely to consent or agree to marrying the person that abducted her?
MrPudding wrote: » 2) Do you think that a woman that has been abducted and married against her will is likely to consent to sex with the person she has been married to against her will?
marienbad wrote: » Peregrinus- no matter what the ancient interpretation you would you agree that by todays standards it would be a war crime . . .
marienbad wrote: » . . . and would be classed as rape ?
Peregrinus wrote: » Yes. (Just to be clear, I'm talking here about Deut 20:10-14, and I think you are too.) I think it's much more likely to be classed as abduction or ethnic cleansing, to be honest. I don't think there's any example, ancient or modern, of forcible marriages in these circumstances being classed for criminal purposes as rape, even by people who disapproved of them or denounced them. (If you know of an example, I'll be happy to consider it.) My point here is not that this practice would be defensible; not at all. My point is that this conversation has all the hallmarks of one in which people start by denouncing the bible for condoning rape, and only looked for evidence when the assertion was challenged. Their initial belief was not evidence-based. And they don't find any very convincing evidence, which is why, after other passages initially cited have been quietly dropped, they have to rely on passages like this, which are the best they can do but, frankly, don't provide the kind of support that they expected and hoped to find. If you started by reading the bible and forming opinions about what your read, you might well deplore this passage, but I suspect the focus of your denunciation would not be that it condones rape. In fact what this law does is prevent rape; if a conqueror desires a captive woman, he can't just have her; he has to marry her, tqke her into his home, allow her a period of mourning, give her a status, rights and a future. It's not great, perhaps, but it's better than what would happen if the law were not there. Yes, marriage can itself be a rape, and for those senses of "rape", this passage condones rape. But, as for the primary sense of rape, as for the kind of rapes that to this day still happen to the women on the losing side in a war, this passage is clearly aimed at preventing those rapes, and I suggest it's less than honest for people who claim that the bible "condones rape" not to acknowledge this.
marienbad wrote: » So if bibically thinking has moved on in this area why has it not done so as regards homosexuality or the submission of women in marriage ?