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The 10 Commandments

  • 27-01-2008 1:35am
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 5,406 ✭✭✭


    I'm currently reading a book by the French philosopher Michel Onfray in which he puts out a suggestion on the 10 Commandments which I found interesting. Could it be possible that the Commandments which were given to Moses were meant only to apply among the Jewish community, in that I mean for example "Thou Shalt Not Kill" was intended to be "Thou, a Jew, Shalt Not Kill Another Jew", and this was understood as such by the Jews of the time. The Commandments were only intended to be a structure for ensuring the survival of specifically the Jewish community and not as a greater guide for humanity.

    I expect that this hypothesis will be rejected as nonsense and to be told God obviously intended the rules to protect the heathen as well as the Jew, but why? The suggestion that it was only to apply within the community seems to me to be the perfect solution to the problem of the genocide of the Midianite men and married women and the rape of the Midianite virgins, as well as other similar events in the Old Testament. Why did God allow murder and rape in these cases? Because the commandments didn't apply to these people. Why could the tribe of Benjamin covet and abduct the women of Shiloh? Because they were not Jews.

    I can see, coming from an atheist perspective, as to why this would have made sense. I don't believe the commandments truely were God given, they would have been written by men as a basic form of a community legal system. It makes perfect sense why they would not want in-fighting among the community which could be caused by coveting your neighbours ass or to go and kill a neighbour you don't like but in the dog-eat-dog of ancient Judea it makes no sense to say "You can't kill anyone" or "You can't covet any man's wife".


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    I expect that this hypothesis will be rejected as nonsense and to be told God obviously intended the rules to protect the heathen as well as the Jew, but why?

    I wouldn't call it nonsense as it is a serious suggestion, but I think it is wrong. Why? Well, one reason would be that the Jews' own Scriptures state that before there was ever a Jewish race God said, "And from each man, too, I will demand an accounting for the life of his fellow man. Whoever sheds the blood of man, by man shall his blood be shed; for in the image of God has God made man." (Genesis 9:5-6)

    Biblically, the reason why men are not to murder one another is because all men are made in God's image, not any doctrine of racial solidarity. The Genesis verse I've quoted is significant in that it actually mandates one form of killing (capital punishment of a murderer) while forbidding other forms of killing. The 10 commandments, to my understanding, prohibited murder while permitting other forms of killing (eg capital punishment and warfare).

    BTW, before the trolls get busy with their usual silliness, as a Christian who follows the New Testament I do not believe in genocide or rape. In fact I am opposed to all killing of people, including murder, capital punishment, warfare and abortion.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    Jesus also used it in the New Testament to speak to the rich man. He also redefined the definition of neighbour, to mean all mankind including Gentiles. I conclude that the Ten Commandments mean to all man, not just to the Jewry from the New Covenant as well as the Old Testament.


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