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Abortion Discussion

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  • Registered Users Posts: 2,800 ✭✭✭Lingua Franca


    Sorry I didn't add more than a C&P and a link earlier, I had to run out the door.

    I'm interested in Mrs Smyth's denial of harrassment - She's been accused of harrassing women and girls outside of the FPA for years but always denied it. And here she is caught red handed both harrassing women and taunting about harrassing women, and then lying to the police about it and then saying it was a "joke" when confronted with the CCTV of it. I suspect she genuinely believes she is isn't harrassing anyone even when she's doing it and saying that she's doing it, because what's a bit of harrassment when oh da poor wee babbies are being slaughtered?

    Funnily enough I had cause and opportunity to use the services of the Marie Stopes clinic in Belfast over the summer but completely forgot that it existed and so waited until I got home to the Netherlands. It was only to get an expensive contraceptive device that isn't covered by my insurance installed but I wonder if I'd have been hassled by the pro life protestors too?


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Entertainment Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Regional East Moderators Posts: 18,224 CMod ✭✭✭✭The Black Oil


    Although she left court without making comment, her solicitor Aidan Carlin described the verdict as "a disappointment for Christians worldwide".

    Ding dong, the oppression's on!


  • Registered Users Posts: 17,495 ✭✭✭✭eviltwin


    Sorry I didn't add more than a C&P and a link earlier, I had to run out the door.

    I'm interested in Mrs Smyth's denial of harrassment - She's been accused of harrassing women and girls outside of the FPA for years but always denied it. And here she is caught red handed both harrassing women and taunting about harrassing women, and then lying to the police about it and then saying it was a "joke" when confronted with the CCTV of it. I suspect she genuinely believes she is isn't harrassing anyone even when she's doing it and saying that she's doing it, because what's a bit of harrassment when oh da poor wee babbies are being slaughtered?

    Funnily enough I had cause and opportunity to use the services of the Marie Stopes clinic in Belfast over the summer but completely forgot that it existed and so waited until I got home to the Netherlands. It was only to get an expensive contraceptive device that isn't covered by my insurance installed but I wonder if I'd have been hassled by the pro life protestors too?

    Probably. I once got spat at going into the IFP clinic in Cathal Brugha Street for a breast check. They don't care, was reading some of the pro life FB pages and they are genuine in their opinion that Smyth is doing "god's work". Where was God today, he wasn't looking out for her in court. Sadly she might be no longer a threat but there are many others only too willing to step into her shoes and take her place.


  • Registered Users Posts: 11,844 ✭✭✭✭PopePalpatine


    I'm just worried about whether we'll see anti-choicers descend into violence. I remember one poster in AH saying he'd love to "abort pro-abortionists", he seemed like an unhinged Anders Breivik wannabe.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,800 ✭✭✭Lingua Franca


    eviltwin wrote: »
    Probably. I once got spat at going into the IFP clinic in Cathal Brugha Street for a breast check. They don't care, was reading some of the pro life FB pages and they are genuine in their opinion that Smyth is doing "god's work". Where was God today, he wasn't looking out for her in court. Sadly she might be no longer a threat but there are many others only too willing to step into her shoes and take her place.

    I saw that picture on her page, or on her support page, which said something like "Even if you tell lies about me, slander my name or take me to court I will defend the unborn".

    Well, she was taken to court where it was proved beyond doubt and with substantial physical evidence that she was telling lies and slandering people.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    I suspect she genuinely believes she is isn't harrassing anyone even when she's doing it and saying that she's doing it, because what's a bit of harrassment when oh da poor wee babbies are being slaughtered?
    I know it's nice to be nice and all (leaving aside the last part of your sentence), but I very much doubt she genuinely believed she wasn't harassing anyone.
    She may have felt it was justified, but I find it hard to believe that anyone cannot tell the difference between protesting against an establishment, and harassing individuals.


  • Registered Users Posts: 769 ✭✭✭Frito


    Just a quick update regarding the case brought on behalf of the child born with foetal alcohol syndrome in UK - dismissed by court of appeal.

    http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/uk-30327893


  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    I wonder will they take it to the Supreme Court. GLP Solicitors seem to be treating it as a test case so you'd imagine they always intended it to go as far as possible to pave the way for their other cases.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,788 ✭✭✭MrPudding


    Absolam wrote: »
    I wonder will they take it to the Supreme Court. GLP Solicitors seem to be treating it as a test case so you'd imagine they always intended it to go as far as possible to pave the way for their other cases.

    Someone cynical might suggest that as they have another 80 FAS sufferers on their books the potential financial upside of a win in the SC might make the risk worthwhile.

    MrP


  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    I wouldn't have thought it was cynical; I would think the consideration they're giving to the appeal judgement will revolve around how closely it matches their prediction of grounds for moving to the SC with those cases in mind.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    MrPudding wrote: »
    Someone cynical might suggest that as they have another 80 FAS sufferers on their books the potential financial upside of a win in the SC might make the risk worthwhile.
    Someone would have to be so blinded by cynicism, in fact, that they would make the assumption that the reported 80 potential claimants are all "on the books" of GLP solicitors, and that GLP has an interest in the success of those 80 potential cases. They aren't, and it doesn't.

    The nominal claimant in this case, CP, is seven years old and has been in the care of the local authority since shortly after her birth, and will remain so indefinitely. It was the local authority that decided to bring the claim on her behalf. Most of the other 80 potential claimants will also be children in the care of different local authorities. If you're looking for people who have a financial interest in securing criminal injuries compensation for these children - other than the children themselves, of course - it's the local authorities, not the solicitors.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,163 ✭✭✭Shrap


    Can I just humbly ask what this discussion about Fetal Alcohol Syndrome has to do with abortion? Or is this now a thread for general mother/baby issues?


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,788 ✭✭✭MrPudding


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Someone would have to be so blinded by cynicism, in fact, that they would make the assumption that the reported 80 potential claimants are all "on the books" of GLP solicitors, and that GLP has an interest in the success of those 80 potential cases. They aren't, and it doesn't.

    The nominal claimant in this case, CP, is seven years old and has been in the care of the local authority since shortly after her birth, and will remain so indefinitely. It was the local authority that decided to bring the claim on her behalf. Most of the other 80 potential claimants will also be children in the care of different local authorities. If you're looking for people who have a financial interest in securing criminal injuries compensation for these children - other than the children themselves, of course - it's the local authorities, not the solicitors.
    Just to be clear, I would not be one of those people. A solicitor's job is to secure the best deal for his or her client. Of course, depending on the nature of the agreement with the client, the solicitor does have a certain amount of self interest in a good verdict, and even though I am not necessarily cynical, I would expect the solicitor to consider likelyhood of success, with its potential upside for them them and the client, against chance of failure, which could be expensive for both solicitor and client.

    And one quick point, the article does say that the firm represents 80 other children suffering from FAS.

    MrP


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Shrap wrote: »
    Can I just humbly ask what this discussion about Fetal Alcohol Syndrome has to do with abortion? Or is this now a thread for general mother/baby issues?
    A lot of people saw it as at least somewhat relevant. Basically:

    1. CP was born with foetal alcohol syndrome as a result of her mother having drunk very large quantities of alcohol steadily throughout the pregnancy. (Half a bottle of vodka plus eight cans of lager a day.) She suffers signficant developmental impairment as a result, and will suffer from it all her life.

    2. She sued for compensation under the criminal injuries compensation legislation, which provides compensation (at the public expense) to people who suffer physical injury as the victim of a crime of violence. It was not disputed that she was injured, but to succeed she had to show that she was a victim of a crime of violence.

    3. She argued that she was a victim of the crime created by Offences Agaisnt the Person Act 1861 s. 23, which makes it a crime to "maliciously administered poison to another person, so as to endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm".

    4. It was not disputed that the s. 23 poisoning crime was a crime of violence, or that CP's mother was "malicious" (in the technical sense - she drank the alcohol intentionally, and knowing of its likely effect on her unborn child) or that alcohol was a poison and was administered to CP (through the maternal blood supply) or that it inflicted greivous bodily harm on her. The only issue was whether CP was "another person" at the time the alcohol was administered to her.

    Now do you begin to see the relevance to the abortion argument? If the as-yet-unborn CP was a "person" for the purposes of the Offences Against the Person Act s. 23, then why would she not be a "person" for other purposes of law and public policy? And you wouldn't be alone in spotting the link - both British Pregnancy Advisory Service, a pro-choice group, and the Pro-Life Research Unit, a pro-life group, intervened in the proceedings to make submissions "adopting a different standpoint according to those whose interests they sought to advance".


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    MrPudding wrote: »
    And one quick point, the article does say that the firm represents 80 other children suffering from FAS.

    MrP
    You're quite right. My apologies.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,426 ✭✭✭TheChizler


    Could the law possibly be applied retroactively in this case? The foetus could be considered a person for the purposes of the crime if and only if they were born at some stage? It's clearly irresponsible to drink heavily if you intend to bring a foetus to full term. But if a birth is what makes the act a crime then you could get cases with the birth being continued against the wishes of the mother, in cases where they weren't able to access abortion services etc. You could say it's a crime where they intended to go to full term and did, but how do you go about proving that kind of intent? I know proving intent comes up in courts all the time but I feel this would be a very tricky one.


  • Registered Users Posts: 12,644 ✭✭✭✭lazygal


    TheChizler wrote: »
    Could the law possibly be applied retroactively in this case? The foetus could be considered a person for the purposes of the crime if and only if they were born at some stage? It's clearly irresponsible to drink heavily if you intend to bring a foetus to full term. But if a birth is what makes the act a crime then you could get cases with the birth being continued against the wishes of the mother, in cases where they weren't able to access abortion services etc. You could say it's a crime where they intended to go to full term and did, but how do you go about proving that kind of intent? I know proving intent comes up in courts all the time but I feel this would be a very tricky one.

    In Ireland as the constitution provides to protect the unborn I wonder how such a case would go here, especially as there is no access to abortion for those who don't want to continue a pregnancy unless your life is at risk.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Short answer: You could do lots of things, if you were the legislature. But this question was before a court, which had to answer it within the confines of the legislation enacted, rather than the legislation which might be enacted. The legislation said that the injury had to result from a crime of violence, and it would be contrary to fairly fundamental principles to decree that a particular act might or might not be a crime, depending on the outcome of events which would only unfold after the act was committed, and over which the actor would have no control. Nothing in the existing legislation would allow the court to hold that maliciously drinking collossal amounts of alcohol during a pregnancy that you don't intend to terminate would be a crime if, and only if, the baby was subsequently born alive.

    Plus, you'd end up with the strange result that if I poison the child I am carrying enough to cause it severe injury and it is subsequently born alive, I have committed a crime. But if I poison it a little bit more so that it dies in utero, I have not committed a crime. That might be hard to justify ethically.

    Longer answer: If you want to provide compensation to the victims of foetal alcohol syndrome (or other prenatal injuries), you'd probably enact legislation which didn't depend on the prenatal injury being the result of a crime. That would avoid the question of the mother's responsiblity to the child she is carrying, and substitute instead the question of society's responsibility to the child that has been born alive, but is impaired. Why, after all, should the child's entitlement to compensation from the state depend on some individual having been at fault? Surely the child's special needs, coupled with its own inability to provide for them and its infant dependence on others constitute a sufficient moral case for providing compensation? Of course, if you go down this road there is no reason to stop at foetal alcohol syndrome, or at conditions which result from an externally-inflicted injury - the case for compensating any congenital impairment, however arising, would be strong.


  • Registered Users Posts: 12,644 ✭✭✭✭lazygal


    I wonder how it would play out if a couple knew the risks of a child having an inherited condition were high, eg cystic fibrosis, and had a child knowing the risks who then had the disease. Would such a child deserve compensation for the risks his or her parents took?


  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    lazygal wrote: »
    In Ireland as the constitution provides to protect the unborn I wonder how such a case would go here, especially as there is no access to abortion for those who don't want to continue a pregnancy unless your life is at risk.
    In Ireland the Constitution requires the State to protect and vindicate the right to life of the unborn; it doesn't make any requirement to generally protect the unborn (i.e. their wellbeing). So I'd imagine such a case going through the Irish courts would be likely to follow a similar course to the one in the UK; I don't really see how a lack of access to abortion for those who don't want to continue a pregnancy unless their life is at risk would come to bear on it.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    lazygal wrote: »
    I wonder how it would play out if a couple knew the risks of a child having an inherited condition were high, eg cystic fibrosis, and had a child knowing the risks who then had the disease. Would such a child deserve compensation for the risks his or her parents took?
    I suppose firstly as far as I'm aware no one has ever been prosecuted for deliberately having a child with a high probability of a congenital disorder, so that's an indication of how it currently plays out. So something would have to change that for a start.

    If it did then I think two factors would have to be considered;
    The first would be the probability of harm. For instance, with cystic fibrosis, even if both parents are carriers the possibility is only 25%. For the parents to be considered in some way culpable of a malicious act, I would think the harm would at least have to be probable (ie more than a 50% chance) if not very probable.
    The second would be act itself. In the case of someone poisoning a child in utero, there is a person taking a specific action which causes harm to another (if it were to be considered the case) person. In the case of the inherited deficiency/disease, the act (of conception) necessarily occurs before the (putative) victim exists; much as may be found to be the situation in the FAS case.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,224 ✭✭✭alaimacerc


    Absolam wrote: »
    The first would be the probability of harm. For instance, with cystic fibrosis, even if both parents are carriers the possibility is only 25%. For the parents to be considered in some way culpable of a malicious act, I would think the harm would at least have to be probable (ie more than a 50% chance) if not very probable.
    There are genetic disorders where the probability would be 50%. (If memory serves, too lazy to google: to wit the sex-linked ones. Even leaving aside cases where one parent is actually themself a sufferer of the disorder in question, where they could be 75% or 100%. Assuming single-gene conditions, throughout.) I don't think this is any sort of general principle, though. I wouldn't advise arguing "sure Gard, there was only a 49% chance of me causing an accident" next time you're pulled over for some vehicular dodginess (though yes, that's criminal rather than civil law).

    I think the usual criterion is not the objective probability, but the subjective intent: to wit, whether the act is consciously intended, recklessly or negligently entered into.
    The second would be act itself. In the case of someone poisoning a child in utero, there is a person taking a specific action which causes harm to another (if it were to be considered the case) person. In the case of the inherited deficiency/disease, the act (of conception) necessarily occurs before the (putative) victim exists; much as may be found to be the situation in the FAS case.
    Has already been found, no?

    Not only does the harm occur before the Magic Moment of Conception(TM), it's in some fairly strong sense inherent to the entity that comes into being, rather than something done "to" it, or indeed to any of its precursors or antecedents. (I'd personally say entirely so, but there's no accounting for people's ideas about Spirit Children and John Waters-style Consciousness Woo.) If one is going to legally argue "I shouldn't have been born with this condition", one is essentially saying "I shouldn't have been born at all".

    If course, if you regard the cases in an after-the-fact manner, they become more similar, and cease to depend directly on foetal (embryonic, blastocystic, etc...) personhood.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,224 ✭✭✭alaimacerc


    lazygal wrote: »
    In Ireland as the constitution provides to protect the unborn I wonder how such a case would go here
    Very awkwardly for all concerned, I suspect! It would tend to unpick the fudge implicit in the constitution that "the unborn" is a rights-bearing entity but not actually a person (or else a lesser class of person, if you prefer that theory).

    In the event that a court found a foetus to have full, equal rights of personhood, I think the "awkwardness" would escalate to "crisis" levels.
    especially as there is no access to abortion for those who don't want to continue a pregnancy unless your life is at risk.

    That would seem to rule out the idea of abortion being the "last reasonable chance to prevent such a contingency", certainly. Though in the UK there's a no point any presumptive right to an abortion anyway (unlike various other places, for first trimester or so especially), so there too that would seem problematic.


  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    alaimacerc wrote: »
    There are genetic disorders where the probability would be 50%. <...> I wouldn't advise arguing "sure Gard, there was only a 49% chance of me causing an accident" next time you're pulled over for some vehicular dodginess (though yes, that's criminal rather than civil law). I think the usual criterion is not the objective probability, but the subjective intent: to wit, whether the act is consciously intended, recklessly or negligently entered into.
    I would agree intent would be a significant consideration, however, arguably it is less likely that intent could be found if the parents whose only act was to conceive a child (being distinct from those who act contrary to its' wellbeing once it exists) were aware there was a 0.1% chance of harm (or everyone who becomes pregnant would be guilty) than if they were aware there was a 99% chance of harm.
    alaimacerc wrote: »
    Has already been found, no?
    Well, there's still the potential of a Supreme Court appeal, which would be a final finding.
    alaimacerc wrote: »
    Not only does the harm occur before the Magic Moment of Conception(TM), it's in some fairly strong sense inherent to the entity that comes into being, rather than something done "to" it, or indeed to any of its precursors or antecedents. (I'd personally say entirely
    And if you hold the harm is inherent and not caused by the parents then they can't be held liable. That's a bit sticky if you think the harm is inherent in the entity (in itself a tricky concept), but the sole cause of the entity is the parents, which you might think makes the parents entirely liable.
    alaimacerc wrote: »
    If course, if you regard the cases in an after-the-fact manner, they become more similar, and cease to depend directly on foetal (embryonic, blastocystic, etc...) personhood.
    In which case you're considering whether someone can be held to have commited an offense against a person when that person didn't exist. I suspect that's generally going to result in a resounding no in most western jurisdictions.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    It’s worth remembering that, in the CP case, at no point was the mother charged with a crime, and SFAIK nobody has suggested that the authorities ought to have charged her.

    CP was arguing that a crime had been committed because, basically, she had to argue that to have any hope of winning any compensation. But it’s only because of the structure of the criminal injuries compensation legislation that the case had to be framed in that way.

    What we are talking about here is the responsibility of mothers-to-be to the children they are carrying, and obviously the criminal law isn’t the only way that we can express societal views about what that responsibility is and how it ought to be discharged.

    We don’t have a huge amount of detail about the circumstances of this case; in the interest of protecting CP and her identity not a lot of hard information has been revealed. But we do know that, when CP was born, her mother was 17 years old and already had one child, and that she was drinking half a bottle of vodka and eight cans of lager a day, as well as consuming other unspecified drugs.

    That’s appalling. That’s a near-hopeless situation, and you have to assume that behind it is a horrifying story about how the girl got into that situation. And there is at least the possibility that she, in her turn, is herself the victim of some dreadful parental abuse, neglect or incompetence. In this situation the criminal law is a fairly blunt instrument, and not necessarily an effective one. If it were a crime to drink to excess while pregnant, do we really think that would deter a damaged and despairing 17-year old in the grip of hopeless alcoholism? There may well be actions that we as a society can and should take to try and remedy this situation and to protect unborn children, but I seriously doubt that criminalising drinking while pregnant has much of a role to play.

    If, for the sake of argument, you do want to address this matter through the criminal law, it doesn’t follow that you have to identify the foetus as a “person”. There are lots of crimes that are not committed against “persons”. Civil liberties concerns aside, the legislature could make it a crime to consume, while knowing yourself to be pregnant, alcohol in quantities that are known to be harmful to foetal development. Just as, say, dangerous driving can be prosecuted even if nobody is injured, drinking while pregnant could be prosecuted even if the child is born without FAS, or miscarries for unrelated or unknown reasons (though of course in both cases a prosecution is in practice more likely where somebody is in fact injured). This doesn’t have to be about whether the foetus is a “person”. And if we actually want to address the problem effectively it’s probably wise not to make foetal personhood the focus of whatever it is we try to do; that would embroil it in an existing toxic public policy debate, and pretty much guarantee no progress.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    alaimacerc wrote: »
    Has already been found [not to exist], no?
    Nitpick: No, they didn't find that CP didn't exist at the time her mother was drinking. She definitely did exist; otherwise how could she have absorbed alcohol through the maternal blood supply? Foetuses exist, and humans at the foetal stage of development exist.

    What the court found was that CP wasn't a "person" at the time of the acts by which her mother poisoned her. She was an existing, living entity but not a "person", and the legislation creating the poisoning offence only makes it a crime to poison another person.

    It seems to me that the court was essentially taking "person" as a category analagous to, say, "adult" or "citizen" or "chartered accountant", An entity may, without changing its identity, qualify for membership of such a category on the basis of having acheived a stated developmental stage, or experienced a stated event, or met some other qualification or criterion. CP wasn't a "person" at the time the injury was inflicted because she hadn't been born. But she existed, and the now-person CP is the same being as the then-foetus CP, just more developed.


  • Registered Users Posts: 6,913 ✭✭✭Absolam


    I agree that the case describes a horrendous situation, and it's one which many would immediately feel should be the subject of some rule of law, as fraught as such a proposition is likely to be.

    But it's the issue of whether a court might agree that an offense against a person had been committed, and what the ramification of such a finding might be for the UKs exisiting abortion circumstances that brought it into the scope of this thread.

    So, off topic, I'm personally not convinced that addressing such situations as the case describes through criminal sanctions would either prevent them occurring, or ameliorate their effects, but I suppose the same argument could be made against criminal penalties in general. Nor do I think that extending the definition of personhood, even partially, so that existing assault type legislation can be brought to bear would be an efficient way of addressing the problem.
    The purpose of the entire case, as Peregrinus points out, is not to sanction the mother for her actions, though I'm sure some would agree that it would be appropriate to do so. It is to secure sufficient financial aid from the State to enable the child to live as meaningful a life as possible despite the disadvantage she has been placed under. My thought would be that the case serves to highlight the fact that a compassionate society should enact legislation and funding to facilitate that aid, without requiring recourse to the convolutions we've been describing in this discussion.


  • Registered Users Posts: 769 ✭✭✭Frito


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Nitpick: No, they didn't find that CP didn't exist at the time her mother was drinking. She definitely did exist; otherwise how could she have absorbed alcohol through the maternal blood supply? Foetuses exist, and humans at the foetal stage of development exist.

    What the court found was that CP wasn't a "person" at the time of the acts by which her mother poisoned her. She was an existing, living entity but not a "person", and the legislation creating the poisoning offence only makes it a crime to poison another person.

    It seems to me that the court was essentially taking "person" as a category analagous to, say, "adult" or "citizen" or "chartered accountant", An entity may, without changing its identity, qualify for membership of such a category on the basis of having acheived a stated developmental stage, or experienced a stated event, or met some other qualification or criterion. CP wasn't a "person" at the time the injury was inflicted because she hadn't been born. But she existed, and the now-person CP is the same being as the then-foetus CP, just more developed.

    It was this issue of personhood that interested me initially. Given the recent animal cruelty/neglect cases in the UK and US I then wondered about the scope of victim hood in the absence of personhood. I'm not equating a human foetus with an animal and I realise that the UK animal welfare act does not include an animal foetus. I was thinking whether an argument could be made in this instance for a foetus at 24 weeks to be considered a victim, although not a person. Overall I think not, but the potential is there if sentience can be proven. Should this follow then it would probably lead to a downward revision of the upper gestational limit. Although victim hood is irrelevant, if sentience is proven I would assume the limit would be reduced anyway.
    So I've been wasting my time wondering. Ah well it made doing the housework less tedious.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,117 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Couple of thoughts:

    Legally, victimhood was irrelevant. There was no compensation unless there was a crime; there was no crime unless poison was administered to a "person", not to a "victim".

    But, yes, we can certainly consider CP to be a victim. CP foetal development was impaired by alcohol absorbed through the maternal blood supply. Any medical practitioner will agree that this was an injury. You don't have to be a person, or even to be human, to be injured.

    And we can say that CP is still a victim, since she still lives with the consequences of impaired development. She is a victim who has since become a person.

    With respect, I don't think sentience is relevant. Firstly, the mother drank throughout the pregnancy, and CP was certainly sentient in the later stages of the pregnancy, so at least some of the time while injury was being inflicted CP was sentient, albeit not aware of or capable of appreciating the injury being done to her. (Unless alcohol is only harmful during the early stages of pregnancy? But I don't think that is the case.)

    But, secondly, I don't think you have to be sentient to be a victim; you just have to be injured. Suppose CP was so profoundly developmentally affected by FAS that she never developed to the point of sentience, but was born insentient? Suppose CP was an insentient adult - in a coma, say - and I killed her? In either of those cases would you say that there was no victim?


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  • Registered Users Posts: 769 ✭✭✭Frito


    I was considering whether victim hood in the absence of personhood could be a sufficient standard for the existence of a crime in this case, so in utero, was a crime committed against CP because she met the criteria of a victim, rather than a person? I understand the act her team referenced relates to personhood and thus they could not make a case.

    I made mention of sentience because my understanding is this is required to establish whether or not a crime can be committed against an animal (ie the animal is not the property of the owner), although I could be wrong. If CP is sentient at 24 weeks and capable of being born alive, could she be considered a victim of a crime whilst in utero even though she is not considered a person? If this could be argued successfully then what implications could this have for abortion law? (I appreciate there is no legislation to reference) I concluded that regardless of victim hood, sentience could mean a reduction in the upper gestational limit. I think in your examples sentience and victim hood are irrelevant because personhood is already established by virtue of birth.


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