If a landlord were to serve notice on tenants to vacate which in this instance is 84 days however one of the tenants was due to give notice next week of their intention to leave and this ntocie period would have been 56 days. Where does that leave the tenant?
Is the fact the landlord has served their notice first the mechanism which must be adhered to in this instance? Meaning the tenant could be held liable for rent for the 84 day period as opposed to the 56 day period?
Just to clarify, the landlord has served a valid notice, my query is in terms of the tenants rights here given they intended to serve notice next week themselves.
Also understand that the landlord and tenant may come to an agreement but just want to know where the law stands on this.